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Exam Code: CISSP-ISSEP
Exam Name: ISC (CISSP-ISSEP - Information Systems Security Engineering Professional)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 214 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-14

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NO.1 Which of the following guidelines is recommended for engineering, protecting, managing, processing,
and controlling national security and sensitive (although unclassified) information
A. Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS)
B. Special Publication (SP)
C. NISTIRs (Internal Reports)
D. DIACAP by the United States Department of Defense (DoD)
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following professionals plays the role of a monitor and takes part in the organization's
configuration management process
A. Chief Information Officer
B. Authorizing Official
C. Common Control Provider
D. Senior Agency Information Security Officer
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following processes culminates in an agreement between key players that a system in its
current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls
A. Certification and accreditation (C&A)
B. Risk Management
C. Information systems security engineering (ISSE)
D. Information Assurance (IA)
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following protocols is used to establish a secure terminal to a remote network device
A. WEP
B. SMTP
C. SSH
D. IPSec
Answer: C

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NO.5 FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a
methodology for assessing the security of information systems. Which of the following FITSAF levels
shows that the procedures and controls are tested and reviewed?
A. Level 4
B. Level 5
C. Level 1
D. Level 2
E. Level 3
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following documents is defined as a source document, which is most useful for the ISSE
when classifying the needed security functionality
A. Information Protection Policy (IPP)
B. IMM
C. System Security Context
D. CONOPS
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is used to indicate that the software has met a defined quality level and is ready
for mass distribution either by electronic means or by physical media
A. ATM
B. RTM
C. CRO
D. DAA
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following email lists is written for the technical audiences, and provides weekly
summaries of security issues, new vulnerabilities, potential impact, patches and workarounds, as well as
the actions recommended to mitigate risk
A. Cyber Security Tip
B. Cyber Security Alert
C. Cyber Security Bulletin
D. Technical Cyber Security Alert
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following elements of Registration task 4 defines the system's external interfaces as well
as the purpose of each external interface, and the relationship between the interface and the system
A. System firmware
B. System software
C. System interface
D. System hardware
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following documents were developed by NIST for conducting Certification & Accreditation
(C&A) Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. NIST Special Publication 800-59
B. NIST Special Publication 800-60
C. NIST Special Publication 800-37A
D. NIST Special Publication 800-37
E. NIST Special Publication 800-53
F. NIST Special Publication 800-53A
Answer: A,B,D,E,F

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NO.11 Which of the following security controls is a set of layered security services that address
communications and data security problems in the emerging Internet and intranet application space
A. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
B. Common data security architecture (CDSA)
C. File encryptors
D. Application program interface (API)
Answer: B

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NO.12 The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has
been accredited in Phase 3. What are the process activities of this phase Each correct answer represents
a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Security operations
B. Continue to review and refine the SSAA
C. Change management
D. Compliance validation
E. System operations
F. Maintenance of the SSAA
Answer: A,C,D,E,F

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NO.13 Which of the following types of firewalls increases the security of data packets by remembering the state
of connection at the network and the session layers as they pass through the filter
A. Stateless packet filter firewall
B. PIX firewall
C. Stateful packet filter firewall
D. Virtual firewall
Answer: C

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NO.14 Part of your change management plan details what should happen in the change control system for
your project. Theresa, a junior project manager, asks what the configuration management activities are
for scope changes. You tell her that all of the following are valid configuration management activities
except for which one
A. Configuration Item Costing
B. Configuration Identification
C. Configuration Verification and Auditing
D. Configuration Status Accounting
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following tasks obtains the customer agreement in planning the technical effort
A. Task 9
B. Task 11
C. Task 8
D. Task 10
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following federal laws is designed to protect computer data from theft
A. Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA)
B. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA)
C. Government Information Security Reform Act (GISRA)
D. Computer Security Act
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following elements are described by the functional requirements task Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Coverage
B. Accuracy
C. Quality
D. Quantity
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.18 Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A)
process
A. Authorizing Official
B. Information system owner
C. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
D. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following is a type of security management for computers and networks in order to identify
security breaches.?
A. IPS
B. IDS
C. ASA
D. EAP
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following Security Control Assessment Tasks gathers the documentation and supporting
materials essential for the assessment of the security controls in the information system
A. Security Control Assessment Task 4
B. Security Control Assessment Task 3
C. Security Control Assessment Task 1
D. Security Control Assessment Task 2
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT an objective of the security program?
A. Security organization
B. Security plan
C. Security education
D. Information classification
Answer: B

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Topic 1, Volume A

NO.2 Which of the following processes is a structured approach to transitioning individuals, teams,
and
organizations from a current state to a desired future state?
A. Configuration management
B. Procurement management
C. Change management
D. Risk management
Answer: C

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Topic 3, Volume C

NO.3 Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system,
network,
or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Which of the following
areas can be exploited in a penetration test?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Race conditions
B. Social engineering
C. Information system architectures
D. Buffer overflows
E. Kernel flaws
F. Trojan horses
G. File and directory permissions
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

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NO.4 Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security
evaluation?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS 102
C. OCTAVE
D. DITSCAP
Answer: B

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Topic 4, Volume B

NO.5 Topic 1, Volume A
1. The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title
commonly
given to the most senior executive in an enterprise. What are the responsibilities of a Chief
Information Officer?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Preserving high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization
B. Facilitating the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials
C. Establishing effective continuous monitoring program for the organization
D. Proposing the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then
working within a budget to implement the plan
Answer: A,C,D

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Topic 2, Volume D

NO.6 Which of the following system security policies is used to address specific issues of concern to
the
organization?
A. Program policy
B. Issue-specific policy
C. Informative policy
D. System-specific policy
Answer: B

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Topic 3, Volume C

NO.7 Kelly is the project manager of the BHH project for her organization. She is completing the risk
identification process for this portion of her project. Which one of the following is the only thing
that
the risk identification process will create for Kelly?
A. Project document updates
B. Risk register updates
C. Change requests
D. Risk register
Answer: D

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Topic 2, Volume D

NO.8 Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?
A. Risk probability and impact matrix
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk management plan
Answer: B

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Topic 2, Volume D

NO.9 David is the project manager of HGF project for his company. David, the project team, and
several
key stakeholders have completed risk identification and are ready to move into qualitative risk
analysis. Tracy, a project team member, does not understand why they need to complete
qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following is the best explanation for completing
qualitative risk analysis?
A. It isa rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for the plan risk responses and
lays the foundation for quantitative analysis.
B. It is a cost-effective means of establishing probability and impact for the project risks.
C. Qualitative risk analysis helps segment the project risks, create a risk breakdown structure, and
create fast and accurate risk responses.
D. All risks must pass through quantitative risk analysis before qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: A

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Topic 1, Volume A

NO.10 What does RTM stand for?
A. Resource Testing Method
B. Replaced Traceability Matrix
C. Requirements Traceability Matrix
D. Resource Tracking Matrix
Answer: C

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Exam Code: CISSP-ISSMP
Exam Name: ISC (CISSP-ISSMP - Information Systems Security Management Professional)
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Total Q&A: 218 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-07

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NO.1 Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a
particular message?
A. Non-repudiation
B. Confidentiality
C. Authentication
D. Integrity
Answer: A

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NO.2 Mark works as a security manager for SoftTech Inc. He is involved in the BIA phase to create a
document to be used to help understand what impact a disruptive event would have on the business. The
impact might be financial or operational. Which of the following are the objectives related to the above
phase in which Mark is involved? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Resource requirements identification
B. Criticality prioritization
C. Down-time estimation
D. Performing vulnerability assessment
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Which of the following is the process performed between organizations that have unique hardware or
software that cannot be maintained at a hot or warm site?
A. Cold sites arrangement
B. Business impact analysis
C. Duplicate processing facilities
D. Reciprocal agreements
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following penetration testing phases involves reconnaissance or data gathering?
A. Attack phase
B. Pre-attack phase
C. Post-attack phase
D. Out-attack phase
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following relies on a physical characteristic of the user to verify his identity?
A. Social Engineering
B. Kerberos v5
C. Biometrics
D. CHAP
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following characteristics are described by the DIAP Information Readiness Assessment
function? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It performs vulnerability/threat analysis assessment.
B. It identifies and generates IA requirements.
C. It provides data needed to accurately assess IA readiness.
D. It provides for entry and storage of individual system data.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 Which of the following recovery plans includes specific strategies and actions to deal with specific
variances to assumptions resulting in a particular security problem, emergency, or state of affairs?
A. Business continuity plan
B. Disaster recovery plan
C. Continuity of Operations Plan
D. Contingency plan
Answer: D

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NO.8 Joseph works as a Software Developer for Web Tech Inc. He wants to protect the algorithms and the
techniques of programming that he uses in developing an application. Which of the following laws are
used to protect a part of software?
A. Code Security law
B. Trademark laws
C. Copyright laws
D. Patent laws
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following security models dictates that subjects can only access objects through
applications?
A. Biba-Clark model
B. Bell-LaPadula
C. Clark-Wilson
D. Biba model
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following are the ways of sending secure e-mail messages over the Internet.? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)
A. TLS
B. PGP
C. S/MIME
D. IPSec
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 Which of the following BCP teams is the first responder and deals with the immediate effects of the
disaster?
A. Emergency-management team
B. Damage-assessment team
C. Off-site storage team
D. Emergency action team
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following is NOT a valid maturity level of the Software Capability Maturity Model (CMM)?
A. Managed level
B. Defined level
C. Fundamental level
D. Repeatable level
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following protocols is used with a tunneling protocol to provide security?
A. FTP
B. IPX/SPX
C. IPSec
D. EAP
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following subphases are defined in the maintenance phase of the life cycle models?
A. Change control
B. Configuration control
C. Request control
D. Release control
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.15 You work as a Senior Marketing Manger for Umbrella Inc. You find out that some of the software
applications on the systems were malfunctioning and also you were not able to access your remote
desktop session. You suspected that some malicious attack was performed on the network of the
company. You immediately called the incident response team to handle the situation who enquired the
Network Administrator to acquire all relevant information regarding the malfunctioning. The Network
Administrator informed the incident response team that he was reviewing the security of the network
which caused all these problems. Incident response team announced that this was a controlled event not
an incident. Which of the following steps of an incident handling process was performed by the incident
response team?
A. Containment
B. Eradication
C. Preparation
D. Identification
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following types of activities can be audited for security? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose three.
A. Data downloading from the Internet
B. File and object access
C. Network logons and logoffs
D. Printer access
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.17 Which of the following involves changing data prior to or during input to a computer in an effort to
commit fraud?
A. Data diddling
B. Wiretapping
C. Eavesdropping
D. Spoofing
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following fields of management focuses on establishing and maintaining consistency of a
system's or product's performance and its functional and physical attributes with its requirements, design,
and operational information throughout its life?
A. Configuration management
B. Risk management
C. Procurement management
D. Change management
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following is the best method to stop vulnerability attacks on a Web server?
A. Using strong passwords
B. Configuring a firewall
C. Implementing the latest virus scanner
D. Installing service packs and updates
Answer: D

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NO.20 You work as a Network Administrator for ABC Inc. The company uses a secure wireless network. John
complains to you that his computer is not working properly. What type of security audit do you need to
conduct to resolve the problem?
A. Operational audit
B. Dependent audit
C. Non-operational audit
D. Independent audit
Answer: D

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