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Exam Code: 251-250
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Staorage Foundation 5.0 for UNIX)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 208 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 Which commands display plex, volume, and kernel states? (Choose two.)
A.vxcat
B.vxdisplay
C.vxinfo
D.vxprint
E.vxstate
Correct:C D

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

NO.2 Which command displays the amount of free space in the configuration database of the datadg
disk group?
A.vxdg -g datadg free
B.vxdg -g datadg list
C.vxdg free datadg
D.vxdg list datadg
Correct:D

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

NO.3 Which command displays the number of paths to the datadg01 disk?
A.vxdisk list datadg01
B.vxdg list datadg01
C.vxpath list datadg01
D.vxdmpadm list datadg01
Correct:A

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

NO.4 Which command is used to change the stripe unit size and number of columns for the datavol
volume in the datadg disk group?
A.vxvol datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
B.vxassist datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
C.vxvol datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
D.vxassist datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
Correct:D

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

NO.5 What are valid mount options for a Veritas file system? (Choose two.)
A.nolargefiles
B.shared
C.logtmp
D.delaylog
E.logdelay
Correct:A D

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

NO.6 Which states are displayed in the output of vxprint? (Choose two.)
A.Data
B.Kernel
C.File System
D.Volume
E.User
Correct:B D

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

NO.7 Which command removes the datadg02 disk from the datadg disk group?
A.vxassist datadg rmdisk datadg02
B.vxdg datadg rmdisk datadg02
C.vxassist datadg remove disk datadg02
D.vxdg datadg remove datadg02
Correct:B

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

NO.8 Which command grows the datavol volume by an additional 30 MB and resizes the file system at
the same time?
A.vxassist -g datadg growby datavol 30m
B.vxresize -g datadg datavol 30m
C.vxresize -g datadg datavol +30m
D.vxassist -g datadg growto datavol 30m
Correct:C

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

NO.9 Which command can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A.vxedit
B.vxassist
C.vxremove
D.vxevac
E.vxmirror
Correct:A B

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

NO.10 Which command upgrades the datadg disk group from version 50 to the current disk group
version?
A.vxdg -T 50 upgrade datadg
B.vxdg upgrade datadg
C.vxdg currvers datadg
D.vxdg 50 currvers datadg
Correct:B

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

NO.11 Which statement is true about adding a mirror to an existing striped volume?
A.A concatenated plex is added to the volume by default.
B.You can use any disks in the disk group to contain the new plex.
C.Synchronization of the new plex is required.
D.You should add the new plex to a different disk group for redundancy.
Correct:C

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

NO.12 What occurs when you add an initialized disk to an existing disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The public and private regions are created on the disk.
B.An empty volume is created on the disk by default.
C.The disk group configuration database is updated.
D.Volume Manager performs a rescan to recognize all newly configured disks.
E.The disk is stamped with the system host ID.
Correct:C E

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

NO.13 Which vxassist parameter is used to set the number of data plexes in a non-layered mirrored
volume?
A.nplex
B.numplex
C.nummirror
D.nmirror
Correct:D

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

NO.14 Which statements are true about deporting a disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The volumes are unavailable.
B.The disk group is available for importing.
C.The disk group is deported and online.
D.The file systems are destroyed.
E.The file systems are accessible.
Correct:A B

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

NO.15 The upgrade scripts are being used to upgrade Volume Manager. Which file's existence would
indicate that the upgrade_start script had been run, but the upgrade_finish has yet to be run?
A./UPGRADE_START/.start_runed
B./VXVM5.0-UPGRADE/.start_runed
C./etc/vx/.start_runed
D./etc/vx/.upgrade_runed
Correct:B

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

NO.16 In the output of the vxdisk list command, there are no entries in the DISK and GROUP columns.
However, you see online invalid in the output of the STATUS column. What does the online invalid
status indicate?
A.The disk is failing and needs to be replaced for future use in Volume Manager.
B.The disk is incompatible with the current release of Volume Manager.
C.The disk is available for initialization or encapsulation by Volume Manager.
D.The disk is available for use and has encapsulated data deported on another system.
Correct:C

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

NO.17 Which statements are true about renaming the disk object? (Choose two.)
A.New disk names must be unique within the disk group.
B.All subdisks will be renamed together with the disk.
C.The disk group needs to be offline.
D.The new disk name must be unique within the system.
E.Subdisks names will remain the same.
Correct:A E

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

NO.18 After initializing a disk for use in Volume Manager, which command is used to create a disk
group named datadg on a device shown as device_tag and using a disk media name of datadg01?
A.vxassist create datadg datadg01=device_tag
B.vxdg create datadg datadg01=device_tag
C.vxdg init datadg datadg01=device_tag
D.vxassist datadg init datadg01= device_tag
Correct:C

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

NO.19 Which vxsnap command option recreates a space-optimized instant snapshot?
A.restore
B.reattach
C.refresh
D.reassociate
Correct:C

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

NO.20 When creating a new volume with the New Volume Wizard in VEA, which layout options are
available to create a layered volume? (Choose two.)
A.concatenate-mirror
B.stripe-mirror
C.mirror-stripe
D.mirror-concatenate
E.concatenate-stripe
F.stripe-concatenate
Correct:A B

Symantec   251-250   251-250   251-250   251-250 exam simulations

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Exam Code: 250-307
Exam Name: Symantec (Admin of Symantec Enterprise Vault 2007 for Exchange)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 172 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 Exchange mailboxes that are enabled for archiving are examined regularly and messages older
than a specified age are moved. Where are the messages moved to?
A.offsite partition
B.archive library
C.user-specific archive
D.collection site
Correct:C

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

NO.2 Which two methods can be used to view the policy settings contained within the hidden
messages? (Choose two.)
A.access Enterprise Vault Diagnostics from within the Outlook client and go to Vault Information
B.locate the latest Exchange Provisioning Task Report under the Enterprise Vault Reports directory and
verify the latest policy settings that are being applied to
C.users
D.using the Enterprise Vault full client, right-click on the Inbox, go to Properties, Enterprise Vault tab, and
view the hidden message
E.Access the Enterprise Vault Diagnostics from within the Outlook client and view the client log
F.run a DTrace during the synchronization process with a filter on "Hidden Message" to view all settings
being set within the user's hidden message
Correct:A D

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

NO.3 Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) has been configured to run Journaling and Mailbox Archiving to
separate Vault Stores with Vault Store partitions that are configured on NTFS. Mailbox Archiving is
set to archive large items after one month and all items older than three months. Which items are
single instance stored between the Journal and Mailbox archives?
A.Zero items are single instance stored.
B.Large items, older than one month are single instance stored.
C.Items older than three months are single instance stored.
D.All items are single instance stored.
Correct:A

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

NO.4 When creating a Directory database, where should the data and log locations be stored?
A.on the same disk as the Audit database
B.on the same disk as the Vault Store database
C.on the indexing server
D.on separate physical disks
Correct:D

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

NO.5 A large organization wants to replace mail messages with shortcuts after archiving. However,
they want to configure shortcuts to retain only a portion of the original message. Which setting
will allow only a portion of each mail message to be used in the shortcut?
A.Display attachments as
B.Include message body
C.Message characters to include
D.Include link to archived item
Correct:C

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

NO.6 An organization has a requirement to archive email from Exchange. They want to provide users
the basic ability to search archived mail and attachment content, but with minimal space used for
this feature. Which statement describes how this would be accomplished?
A.Indexing levels should be set to Medium.
B.A Vault Store must be configured with Medium indexing.
C.All attachments are fully indexed regardless of index level.
D.The indexing schema must be changed from its default value.
Correct:A

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

NO.7 What should be done when troubleshooting a mailbox synchronization problem? (Choose three.)
A.verify that the Task Controller Service is running
B.ensure that the Mailbox Archiving Task for Exchange Server is running
C.run EVverify.exe
D.check the relevant message queue
E.verify that the Indexing Service is running
Correct:A B D

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

NO.8 How often does the Symantec Enterprise Vault Journal Archiving Task process the journal
mailbox?
A.every 30 seconds
B.every 60 seconds
C.every two minutes
D.every five minutes
Correct:B

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

NO.9 Which three types of Outlook Web Access (OWA) security configurations does Enterprise Vault
support? (Choose three.)
A.basic authentication
B.SSL
C.forms based authentication
D.premium mode
E.DCOM
Correct:A B C

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

NO.10 Which two conditions must be met before a mailbox can be enabled? (Choose two.)
A.The mailbox must be placed in a Provisioning Group.
B.The Indexing Service must be running.
C.The Provisioning Task must have run.
D.The mailbox management process must be running.
E.The Mailbox Archiving Task must be restarted.
Correct:A C

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

NO.11 When processing a scheduled archiving run, all processes appear to be functioning correctly
and no errors are logged. However no items are archived during the scheduled time frame. What
needs to be checked when troubleshooting this problem?
A.confirm the site schedule period is outside of normal business hours
B.confirm the archiving task "Run in report mode" option is deselected
C.confirm the archiving task is set to start automatically
D.confirm that the task settings enforces at least one item to be archived per run
Correct:B

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

NO.12 What is the default indexing level for a Symantec Enterprise Vault site?
A.None
B.Brief
C.Medium
D.Full
Correct:C

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

NO.13 Which feature of Offline Vault is designed to reduce synchronization times?
A.auto downloading
B.age-based archiving
C.pre-emptive caching
D.multi-threaded caching
Correct:C

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

NO.14 Which two can interfere with the normal operation of indexing? (Choose two.)
A.real-time antivirus scanning of index locations
B.index locations on SAN storage
C.SchemaType that is set incorrectly
D./3GB switch in boot.ini
E.index location on network share
Correct:A D

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

NO.15 Within Provisioning Groups, what defines how archiving is performed for the groups defined?
A.status of the vault partition
B.size of the Exchange Server
C.the Mailbox Policy
D.the Provisioning Task
Correct:C

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

NO.16 Refer to the Exhibit. Phil, Sabina, and Anthony all work for the same company. The Symantec
Enterprise Vault Provisioning Groups and their members are as follows: Phil is part of the Sales
Organizational Unit. Sabina is part of the Marketing Organizational Unit. Anthony is part of the
Marketing Organizational Unit and also a manager of the marketing team. The Sales Group
consists of all members of the Sales Organizational Unit. The Marketing Group consists of all
members of the Marketing Organizational Unit. The Department Heads Group consists of all
managers. Assuming the Provisioning Groups are set up as shown in the exhibit, which statement
accurately describes the users and their resulting mailbox policies?
A.Phil will be part of the Sales Group, and both Sabina and Anthony will be part of the Marketing Group.
B.Phil will be part of the Sales Group, Sabina will be part of the Marketing Group, and Anthony will be part
of the Department Heads Group.
C.Phil will be part of the Sales Group, Sabina will be part of the Marketing Group, and Anthony will be part
of both the Marketing and the Department Heads Group.
D.Anthony will be part of the Department Heads Group, and both Sabina and Phil will be part of the
Marketing Group.
Correct:A

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

NO.17 According to Enterprise Vault indexing best practices, one of two configuration steps should
be performed when index volumes are stored on a remote windows share.What are these two
configuration steps? (Choose two.)
A.disable Opportunistic locks from being granted through the remote server's registry
B.disable Opportunistic locks from being requested through the vault server's registry
C.disable Opportunistic locking on the vault server through ADSI edit
D.enable Opportunistic locks to be requested through the remote server's registry
E.enable Opportunistic locks to be granted through the vault server's registry
Correct:A B

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

NO.18 Which two Web-based clients support the Symantec Enterprise Vault toolbar buttons, such as
Store in Vault and Delete from Vault? (Choose two.)
A.Safari
B.Outlook Web Access Basic
C.Outlook Web Access Premium
D.Firefox
E.Offline Archive Explorer
Correct:B C

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

NO.19 A Symantec Enterprise Vault monitoring report indicates that messages are no longer cleared
from the journal mailbox. What are three possible causes for this? (Choose three.)
A.Exchange Mailbox Archiving Task has shut down.
B.Exchange Journaling Task has shut down.
C.An administrator has modified permissions to the Exchange Server object in the Vault Administration
Console.
D.An administrator has modified permissions to the Exchange Journal mailbox.
E.An administrator has modified permissions to the journal archive.
Correct:B D E

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

NO.20 In addition to index locations, which Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) folders should be
excluded from Anti-Virus scanning on all EV servers? (Choose three.)
A.MSMQ storage location
B.C:\program files\Enterprise Vault\MOM
C.TEMP folders
D.Shopping folder
E.Convertors folder
Correct:A C D

Symantec pdf   250-307   250-307 questions   250-307   250-307

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Exam Code: ST0-47X
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec NetBackup 6.5 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 Which three features are included in the Standard Infrastructure capacity tier? (Select three.)
A. Library Based Tape Drive
B. OpenStorage Option
C. Vault Option
D. Shared Storage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 What is OpenStorage?
A. the new Symantec physical disk array
B. the software layer that interfaces with any type of disk
C. the Veritas NetBackup 6.5 service that manages disks
D. a new term for a Veritas NetBackup 6.5 Disk Storage Unit
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two are internal databases used by Veritas NetBackup 6.5? (Select two.)
A. NDMP File database
B. Image database
C. Topology database
D. EMM database
E. Encrypted Media database
Answer: BD

Symantec practice test   ST0-47X   ST0-47X   ST0-47X

NO.4 What are two features of the Flexible Disk Option? (Select two.)
A. shared disk
B. de-duplication
C. replication
D. advanced disk
Answer: AD

Symantec   ST0-47X   ST0-47X exam prep   ST0-47X questions

NO.5 An administrator wants to use the capacity-based licensing model. There are 50 clients, each with 50
GB of data that must be backed up. Ten of the clients are database servers.
What is the correct specification for determining the license configuration?
A. 5 Front End Terabytes, 40 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
B. 1 Enterprise Server, 40 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
C. 2.5 Front End Terabytes, 50 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
D. 5 Back End Terabytes, 50 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is it called when an administrator sets up a set of disk volumes that can then be assign to
specific Media Servers, Policies, or Storage Units?
A. OpenStorage
B. Disk Pool
C. Volume Pool
D. Disk Storage Unit
Answer: B

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NO.7 What happens when a backup is started and there are no tapes in the pool specified in the policy?
A. The backup automatically fails and a status code 96 is shown.
B. The Media Manager tries to move a tape from the Scratch Pool to the specified pool.
C. The oldest Full backup is deleted, and that tape is reused for the backup.
D. The GUI pops up a message asking the administrator which action to take.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which three statements are true about exclude lists? (Select three.)
A. They can be specific for schedules.
B. They can be specific for policies.
C. They can be used during user initiated backups.
D. They can use wildcards for file names.
E. They can be run after the include list.
Answer: ABD

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NO.9 In Veritas NetBackup 6.5, what is a backup policy?
A. a set of associations defining which Backup Creation Wizard will run with which clients
B. a schedule defining when a given backup will execute its full or incremental sessions
C. a list of parameters that define the details of how a given backup will be performed
D. a list of clients to be backed up and how long the backup can run
Answer: C

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NO.10 An administrator wants to back up a VMware virtual machine using the VMware Consolidated Backup
(VCB) interface.
Which component is required to enable VCB backups?
A. Database and Application Pack
B. Enterprise Client
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Workstation Client
Answer: B

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NO.11 For Veritas NetBackup 6.5, what is a backup image?
A. a complete copy of an existing backup to tape media (from a disk staging unit or tape media)
B. the subset of NetBackup 6.5 catalog metadata that describes and precisely locates the data from one
client
C. all backup data that is backed up from one client in a single stream during a specific backup session
D. a full backup of the data from one client, plus the Bare Metal Restore system image from that same
client
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which two components/options of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 include the Bare Metal Restore (BMR) Client?
(Select two.)
A. Standard Client
B. Bare Metal Restore Client
C. Enterprise Client
D. Desktop and Laptop Client
E. Database and Application Pack
Answer: AC

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NO.13 Which two purchased options of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 enable the additional features found in the
Enterprise Disk Foundation? (Select two.)
A. Enterprise Client Option
B. Advanced Vault Option
C. VCB Integration Option
D. OpenStorage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: DE

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NO.14 Which two cause the Policy Execution Manager to modify the Next Due Jobs worklist? (Select two.)
A. when Enterprise Media Manager initiates a request to modify the worklist
B. when a backup policy is added, modified, or removed
C. when a job is initiated and completed
D. when a user initiated backup is requested
Answer: BC

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NO.15 Which two disk-based features support data de-duplication? (Select two.)
A. SAN Disk
B. Flexible Disk
C. OpenStorage Disk
D. PureDisk Storage
Answer: CD

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NO.16 Which feature of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 allows backup data to be encrypted at no additional cost?
A. Media Server Encryption
B. NDMP Encryption
C. Client Encryption
D. EMM Server Encryption
Answer: C

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NO.17 What are three options for locating and viewing Veritas NetBackup 6.5 manuals and other
documentation? (Select three.)
A. NetBackup 6.5 media set (the CD-ROMs and/or DVD-ROMs)
B. documentation files in /opt/openv/goodies/hlp (UNIX/Linux)
C. hard copy documentation provided with NetBackup 6.5
D. online on the Symantec Corporation Support website
E. help files in C:\Program Files\Veritas\NetBackup\goodies\help (Windows)
Answer: ACD

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NO.18 What are two benefits of using OpenStorage to manage and control the use of disk-based storage by
Veritas NetBackup 6.5? (Select two.)
A. A Storage Unit can be configured to fail over from a Disk Pool to tape.
B. Multiple Media Servers can access and share a Disk Pool.
C. A Data Pool can be created, which allows load balancing of both tape and disk.
D. Load balancing can be performed across the Media Servers for a Disk Pool.
Answer: BD

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NO.19 In your data center, application data is deemed to be the most important data. You use Platinum Data
Classification in the policy to back up the Application data. You have UNIX clients that use Silver and
Bronze Data Classifications in their policies. There are Windows clients that do not use Data
Classifications. All data is backed up to DSSUs, have a one-year retention and have relocated to tape.
Which backup images are deleted first from the DSSUs when the disk becomes full?
A. application backups
B. UNIX client backups
C. Windows client backups
D. No backups are deleted.
Answer: C

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NO.20 In Veritas NetBackup 6.5 there are currently three storage units (STU-A, STU-B and STU-C). STU-A is
set as On Demand Only, and STU-B and STU-C do not have On Demand Only selected. Three policies
have been created as follows: PolicyA is set up to use storage unit STU-A, PolicyB is set up as Any
Available storage unit and PolicyC is set up to use STU-C.
If STU-B fills up, and STU-A and STU-C still have available space, what happens to future backups for
PolicyB?
A. Backups will use STU-A.
B. Backups will use STU-C.
C. Backups will remain queued waiting for available space on STU-B.
D. Backups will fail with an error message indicating media is unavailable.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-10X
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundation 5 for Unix (STS))
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Total Q&A: 198 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 The vxprint command output for volume vol07 indicates that it has three plexes. How will you
determine which plexes are used for data?
A.Note the lengths. Data plexes are all the same length.
B.Note the STATE field. Non-data plexes will be indicated by the value: LOG.
C.Note the STATE field. Data plexes will be indicated by the value: MIRROR.
D.Note the RECORD TYPE field. Data plexes are designated with PL.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The 'Administer' button in the Storage Foundation Management Server user interface for a host is
continually red, and the vxsvc32 agent is listed as DOWN.
How do you solve this problem?
A.Reconfigure the Storage Foundation management Server.
B.Reinstall the agent.
C.Restart Storage Foundation Management Server.
D.Change the types.ini configuration file on the Central Management Server.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which physical storage device is the equivalent to a virtual volume?
A.A disk
B.A partition
C.A block
D.A directory
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which command will you use to determine the operating mode of vxconfigd?
A.vxdctl enable
B.vxdctl mode
C.vxmode
D.ps -ef |grep vxconfig
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which three are the database agents that are supported by Storage Foundation High Availability
version? (Select three.)
A.Informix
B.DB/2
C.Ingress
D.Oracle
E.Sybase
F.SQL
Answer: BDE

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NO.6 You are monitoring a file system on a Solaris operating system using Veritas Volume Manager when
the following kernel message appears: WARNING: msgcnt x: mesg 069: V-2-69: memory usage specified
by the vxfs:vxfs_ninode and vxfs:vx_bc_bufhwm parameters exceeds available memory; the system may
hang under heavy load. You need to resolve this error. What should you do?
A.Increase the value of one or both parameters to 100% of physical memory or to 100% of kernel virtual
memory
B.Remove either the physical memory parameter or the kernel virtual memory parameter.
C.Leave the parameters at current levels and disregard the system message because it is a false
message.
D.Reduce the value of one or both parameters to less than 50% of physical memory or to 66% of kernel
virtual memory
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are responsible for administering the Storage Foundation for Sybase server. You want to remove a
mounted volume. What should you do first to ensure you are able to remove the mounted volume?
A.Remove the snapshot from the associated volume.
B.Recursively remove all plexes and subdisks.
C.Disassociate the snapshot from the associated volume.
D.Unmount the file system.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are auditing a current storage environment that is not utilizing storage tiering. The information
gained from the audit is to be used in a new storage tiering design that will have 4 tiers (Tiers 1-4). You
need to determine the location for archive data which needs to be accessible but is not used heavily.
Where should you store this data?
A.Tier 1: High-end storage arrays with fast, reliable network connections.
B.Tier 2: High-end arrays, but performance is not a priority.
C.Tier 3: Mid-range to low-end storage arrays with fast, reliable network connections.
D.Tier 4: low-cost media, such as tape, with little consideration given to performance.
Answer: C

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NO.9 You place six physical disks under Volume Manager control to create 10GB of volume. You want to
use this volume as an archive directory. You need to create a volume that will store three copies of the
archived data. Which command will you use to create a volume with three plexes?
A.vxassist make archivevol 30g layout=stripe-mirror nmirror=3
B.vxassist make archivevol 30g layout=stripe-mirror ncolumn=3
C.vxassist make archivevol 10g layout=stripe-mirror nmirror=3
D.vxassist make archivevol 10g layout=stripe-mirror ncolumn=3
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the default limit to the number of subdisks that can be attached to a single plex?
A.1024
B.2048
C.4096
D.Unlimited
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which form of Disk Spanning allows you to map data in equally-sized chunks alternating across
multiple disks and is also known as interleaving?
A.Striping
B.Concatenation
C.Mirroring
D.Parity
Answer: A

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NO.12 You need to create a volume for the HR department. You need to mount a file system with a high
demand for I/O throughput. You are aware that spanning the volume across multiple disks will increase
the I/O performance. Which risk should you be aware of when spanning the volume across multiple
disks?
A.Write throughput degradation
B.Single disk failure causes volume failure
C.Requirement for disk redundancy
D.Poor I/O performance
Answer: B

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NO.13 How many free partitions do you need to encapsulate a boot disk?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which structure records are stored in the private region? (Each correct Answer presents part of the
solution. Select three.)
A.Disk group configuration
B.Disk and disk group ID
C.File system metadata
D.Disk group kernel log
E.Partition tables
Answer: ABD

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NO.15 Which two restrictions does relayout place on the administration of a volume while it is in progress?
(Select two.)
A.During a relayout, you cannot create a sparse plex.
B.During a relayout, you cannot change the number of mirrors in a volume.
C.During a relayout, you cannot change the number of subdisks in a volume.
D.During a relayout, you cannot create a snapshot of a volume.
E.During a relayout, you cannot create a backup of a volume.
Answer: AD

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NO.16 You are working with the Storage Foundation Intelligent Storage Provisioning feature, to create a new
mirrored volume. To prevent system failure, you want to ensure that you are able to perform a recovery of
mirrored volumes in minimum response time.
What should you do?
A.Create a Dirty Region Log.
B.Create a Data Change Map log.
C.Create a RAID-5 log.
D.Create a Snap object log.
Answer: A

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NO.17 You have large number of mirrored volumes, and the resynchronization process on mirrored volumes
will take lot of time. You want to address enable Dirty Region Logging (DRL) and find out the cause why it
takes a long time for resynchronization. You want to check the status of DRL logging to see if it is already
enabled.
How will you accomplish this task?
A.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $DCOVOL option
B.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $DRLVOL option
C.Use the vxprint command with the -F%dcologging $DCOVOL option
D.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $$DCONAME option
Answer: D

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NO.18 You have installed Storage Foundation 5.0 Standard server with a number of hosts. You want to
centrally monitor and manage the hosts. You also want to generate reports for the hosts and the storage
resources that the hosts consume. What should you do?
A.Install the Veritas Quick I/O option on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
B.Install Veritas Storage Foundation Management Server on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
C.Install Veritas Storage Foundation Management Host on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
D.Upgrade Storage Foundation 5.0 Standard to Storage Foundation 5.0 Enterprise.
Answer: B

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NO.19 You want to allow non-layered volume to change to layered stripe-mirror volume while remaining online.
What is the correct procedure to perform this conversion?
A.Convert the volume, stop the volume, remount the file system, and start the volume.
B.Unmount the file system, stop the volume, convert the volume, start the volume, and remount the file
system.
C.Resync the volume, convert the volume, and mirror the volume.
D.Stop the volume and then convert the volume.
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is the minimum number of plexes required for true mirroring to provide redundancy of data?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-067
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 When does the RMS Console Configuration Wizard appear? (Select two.)
A. every time a new license has been added
B. the first time that a user opens the console after the installation or the upgrade
C. after a new Credential database has been applied to the user
D. after a bv-Control snap-in installation on the console computer
E. after the user has changed their default information server
Answer: BD

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NO.2 Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 component is responsible for most inter-component
transactions?
A. Directory Support Service
B. Data Processing Service
C. Information Server Service
D. Application Server Service
Answer: D

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NO.3 What needs to be configured in order to collect common fields during a asset import using the default
data collector?
A. ESM data collector
B. CSV data collector
C. Automatic Entitlements Import job
D. a policy with associated assets
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which three functions are provided by Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. provides the ability to attest to procedural controls
B. uses automated agentless or agent-based capabilities to audit and scan technical controls
C. verifies and confirms risk and posture compliance assessment
D. produces evidence of due care in an IT audit process
E. integrates the remediation process
Answer: ABD

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NO.5 Data can be collected using which two data collectors in Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0?
(Select two.)
A. ESM
B. XML
C. ODBC
D. CSV
E. AS400
Answer: AD

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NO.6 Which term refers to organizational rules or requirements that provide guidance to employees?
A. framework
B. standard
C. policy
D. benchmark
E. regulation
Answer: C

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NO.7 A user-defined report template is created from a predefined report template.
When a user-defined report template is deleted, what happens to the predefined report template?
A. The predefined template is also deleted.
B. The predefined template is automatically updated with the latest changes.
C. The predefined template is unaffected.
D. The predefined template reverts to the original template.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the minimum number of computers required to configure each Data Processing Service role?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which databases are created by Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 Reporting and Analytics
during installation?
A. Production, Reporting, Evidence
B. bv, Compliance Manager, Policy Manager
C. Dashboard, Reporting, SMC
D. Evidence, Standards, Policies
Answer: A

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NO.10 Communications between Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 (CCS 9.0) components rely on a
signed digital certificate.
What is the root certificate authority in the CCS 9.0 environment?
A. Microsoft Certificate Authority Server
B. Certificate Management Console Server
C. CCS Management Service
D. Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which three database maintenance tasks must be performed outside of Symantec Control Compliance
Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. purge evidence
B. back up the databases
C. purge stale data
D. shrink the databases
E. defragment the databases
Answer: BDE

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NO.12 Which three are components of the Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. web portal
B. Evidence database
C. ESM database
D. Cognos
E. application server
Answer: ABE

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NO.13 Which four bv-Control platforms are supported in Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 Standards?
(Select four.)
A. Oracle
B. Windows
C. UNIX
D. Exchange
E. SQL
F. NetWare
Answer: ABCE

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NO.14 Which two benefits does the Policy Module provide? (Select two.)
A. determines coverage gaps for multiple, overlapped regulatory, industry-specific, or best practices
frameworks
B. lowers the cost of policy creation and maintenance and measures policy knowledge and retention
C. defines, reviews, and disseminates written policies to end users as mapped to specific measurable
controls
D. integrates the policy compliance process with existing asset management systems
E. identifies problems within policies or internal controls and prevents policy compliance failure or data
breach
Answer: AC

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NO.15 Which term refers to rules created by a government in response to legislation?
A. framework
B. standard
C. policy
D. benchmark
E. regulation
Answer: E

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NO.16 In the context of IT compliance, what are standards?
A. a set of generally accepted best practices
B. a protector against a specific risk or threat
C. statements of goals and objectives
D. a collection of methods to evaluate compliance efforts
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which information is displayed in the Monitor View?
A. jobs and reports
B. jobs and evaluation results
C. tasks and reports
D. data collections and evaluation results
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which two are modules of Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select two.)
A. Standards
B. bv-Control
C. ESM
D. Internet Security
E. Entitlements
Answer: AE

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NO.19 In Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0, if an administrator wants to evaluate assets compared to a
referenced asset, what is used?
A. reference evaluation
B. baseline standard
C. gold standard
D. policy mapping
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 component is responsible for routing data collection,
evaluation, and reporting jobs?
A. application server
B. collector
C. load balancer
D. Management Service
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-94X
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for UNIX(STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 What is a primary advantage of the concatenation type of volume layout?
A. better free space utilization
B. improved performance
C. automatic load balancing
D. improved availability
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two features are available only with Storage Foundation Enterprise? (Select two.)
A. Cross-platform Data Sharing (CDS)
B. Dynamic Storage Tiering (DST)
C. Veritas Operations Manager (VOM)
D. Dynamic Multipathing (DMP)
E. ability to import LUN snapshots
Answer: AB

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NO.3 An administrator sets up site awareness on a host, and wants to verify that everything is set up
correctly.
Which command should they execute to break off one of the sites to verify the configuration?
A. vxbreak site
B. vxfiredrill
C. vxdg detachsite
D. vxsite detach
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which command should be used to lock a mounted vxfs file system?
A. fsck
B. mountlock
C. vxedit
D. fsadm
Answer: D

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NO.5 An administrator wants to use the Veritas Enterprise Administrator GUI to manage Veritas Storage
Foundation from a remote system.
Which two services must be running on the Veritas Storage Foundation server? (Select two.)
A. vxconfigd
B. vxservice
C. vea
D. vxsvc
E. vxsvcctrl
Answer: BD

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NO.6 Which type of storage virtualization is Veritas Storage Foundation?
A. network-based
B. storage-based
C. host-based
D. direct-based
Answer: C

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NO.7 Refer to the exhibit.
What can the administrator determine about the layout of the volume described in the 'vxprint' output
provided in the exhibit?
A. The volume is striped across six disks.
B. The volume is mirrored with two plexes striped across three columns.
C. The volume is layered with two sub-volumes mirrored across three disks.
D. The volume is mirrored with three plexes striped across two columns.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which Storage Foundation utility is used to generate random read and random write work loads so that
the performance of a file system can be analyzed?
A. vxbench
B. vxtrace
C. vxstat
D. vmstat
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which Veritas Volume Manager daemon monitors changes to the disk group configuration data and
automatically saves to a file any configuration changes that occur?
A. vxconfigd
B. vxrelocd
C. vxconfigbackupd
D. vxiod
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which type of storage virtualization presents disks from multiple arrays and multiple vendors virtually
to one or more servers?
A. host-based
B. network-based
C. storage-based
D. web-based
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which two circumstances justify moving a disk group from Server A to Server B? (Select two.)
A. Server A is having hardware problems.
B. The volumes on Server B are redundant.
C. Server B offers better performance than Server A.
D. The volumes on Server A are concatenated.
E. Server B has no access to the SAN.
Answer: AE

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NO.12 Which component of Veritas Storage Foundation virtualizes storage?
A. File System
B. Volume Manager
C. Cluster Server
D. Volume Replicator
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which command displays the number of paths for disk hds9500-alua0_57?
A. vxdisk -p list hds9500-alua0_57
B. vxdisk scandisk hds9500-alua0_57
C. vxdmpadm list hds9500-alua0_57
D. vxdisk list hds9500-alua0_57
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which scenario requires host-based storage virtualization?
A. A server needs access to network-attached storage.
B. Servers with different operating systems need to access a single disk array.
C. Multiple servers need to access a single disk array.
D. A server needs to mirror data across disk arrays from different vendors.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What does storage virtualization create?
A. additional storage space
B. more processing power
C. an abstraction layer above physical storage
D. more virtual memory
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 250-314
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 2010)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 158 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 Which two configuration changes can be made in order to reduce network traffic within a Central
Administration Server (CAS) environment? (Select two.)
A. keep the catalog files centralized
B. increase the interval time for job status updates
C. ensure that jobs created on the Managed Media Server (MMS) are monitored from the CAS
D. ensure jobs logs and histories are being sent to the CAS less frequently
E. enable some alerts to be rolled up to the CAS less frequently
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which two notification delivery methods can receive job logs as part of the notification process? (Select
two.)
A. pager
B. printer
C. email
D. fax
E. Instant Messenger
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 How should an administrator determine why a job failed?
A. review catalogs
B. inspect the Job Monitor
C. review the job log
D. inspect policy history
Answer: D

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NO.4 In the Job Monitor tab, when is the "Created On" column visible?
A. when Detailed Monitoring is enabled
B. when there is a Central Administration Server (CAS)
C. when the Date field is added to the View properties
D. when the backup job state is Running
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which Restore Selections view displays a list of protected servers regardless of which media contains
the data?
A. View by Computer
B. View by Server
C. View by Resource
D. View Selection Details
Answer: C

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NO.6 How is publishing disabled for a remote server on which the Remote Agent for Windows Systems is
installed?
A. run Backup Exec Utility on the media server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
B. run the Remote Agent Utility on the media server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
C. run Backup Exec Utility on the remote server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
D. run the Remote Agent Utility on the remote server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which utility can collect the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 log files?
A. VxGather.exe
B. VxCollect.exe
C. SGMon.exe
D. SymCollect.exe
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which process is used to install Symantec tape device drivers after attaching a new tape library on a
Symantec Backup Exec 2010 media server?
A. right-click on the device inside the Devices view and choose Install Tape Drivers
B. use Windows Device Manager to install Symantec drivers
C. use the Tape Device Configuration Wizard to install Symantec drivers
D. use the Tape Driver Install Wizard to install Symantec drivers
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is used to perform database maintenance tasks on the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 database?
A. VXGather.exe
B. DBUtility.exe
C. BEConfigure.exe
D. BEUtility.exe
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which file is created when the user selects the Save contents of database to the Backup Exec data
directory option?
A. BEDB.DAT
B. BEDB.BAK
C. BEDB_DAT.MDF
D. BEDB_Log.LDF
Answer: B

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NO.11 A backup administrator has noticed that backups to a tape drive are running slow. What should be
done to improve performance?
A. enable the option 'Write SCSI pass-through mode', which allows Symantec Backup Exec 2010 to write
directly to the drive
B. configure the buffer size to be a higher value than what is currently configured
C. set the Remote Agent Priority to High which dedicates more CPU cycles for the backup
D. lower the buffer count on the tape device to ensure data is written to the device more quickly
Answer: B

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NO.12 To ensure that the Symantec Backup Exec database is kept within the maximum database size
limitations, which two options should be set to control the amount of data that is groomed? (Select two.)
A. alert history
B. catalogs
C. install files
D. job history
E. backup-to-disk files
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 Which two statements are true about the "Recovered Jobs" Error Handling rule? (Select two.)
A. It is only used in a Central Administration Server (CAS) environment.
B. It is enabled by default.
C. It is used to recover all failed jobs.
D. It retries the job based on the "Recovered Jobs" error handling rule settings.
E. It terminates the active job and sends an alert.
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 An administrator needs to restore several different versions of an existing file. Which option should be
chosen?
A. Restore Redirection
B. Restore Versions
C. File Versioning
D. File Redirection
Answer: D

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NO.15 A restore job fails with access denied errors. What is the next step that should be taken?
A. start the Backup Exec Remote Agent on the appropriate machine
B. enable restore rights in Logon Account Management
C. check the restore job credentials for appropriate rights
D. change the logon account for the Backup Exec Remote Agent
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which two features are customizable in backup reports? (Select two.)
A. page orientation
B. report header
C. report font
D. page size
E. report footer
Answer: B,E

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NO.17 Which two views are available in the Job Monitor in Symantec Backup Exec 2010? (Select two.)
A. Job List
B. Calendar
C. System Summary
D. Alerts
E. System Detail
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 What is the purpose of a temporary staging area in Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A. uses a cache area to apply encryption to data during backup
B. allows individual items to be recovered from a tape-based image
C. allows database backups to be cataloged enabling granular recovery
D. uses available system RAM to process datadeduplication during backup
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which two data categories are available through standard reports in Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
(Select two.)
A. alerts
B. policy templates
C. jobs
D. accounts
E. catalogs
Answer: A,C

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NO.20 Which setting in Tools -> Options can be changed to affect how long job history and job logs are kept?
A. Job Status and Recovery
B. Log management
C. Database maintenance
D. Preferences
Answer: C

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