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2014年2月20日星期四

SAP C_BOCR_08 PDF

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Exam Code: C_BOCR_08
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate – Crystal Reports 2008)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 292 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-20

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NO.1 Which formula uses the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Crystal syntax?
A. Numbervar x; x = 5;
B. Dim x as Number x = 5
C. Dim x as Number x := 5
D. Numbervar x; x := 5;
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two formulas can you use to determine whether the content of a string is a number? (Choose
two.)
A. IsNumber({Orders.Customer ID})
B. NumberText({Orders.Customer ID})
C. IsNumeric({Orders.Customer ID})
D. NumericText({Orders.Customer ID})
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 You create a new Crystal report and want to add a Top N sort, but the Group Sort Expert is inactive.
How can you activate the Group Sort Expert?
A. Insert a group name field.
B. Insert a summary field.
C. Insert a running total field.
D. Insert a formula field.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You must create a static array in a Crystal report to be used for numeric calculations in other formulas.
How can you do this?
A. Global NumberVar Array newArray := Array (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
B. Global NumberVar Array newArray := MakeArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
C. Global NumberVar Array newArray := CreateArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
D. Global NumberVar Array newArray := DefineArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which three lines of code will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A. Local Number x := 1;
B. Local NumberVal x := 1;
C. Local NumberVar x := 1;
D. Local NumberValue x := 1;
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 What is the reason you cannot insert a Group layout chart in the Page Header section?
A. You do not have access to the database.
B. The Page Header section is suppressed.
C. A Group layout chart cannot be placed in the Page Header section.
D. You have not saved the report with data.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two methods can you use to change the appearance of an object that you add to a Crystal report?
(Choose two.)
A. Hold down CTRL + Spacebar and click on the object.
B. Right-click the object and use the Format Editor.
C. Select the object and use the Formatting toolbar.
D. Drag-and-drop the object to the Formatting toolbar.
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 After you select a BusinessObjects Universe to use as the data source for a Crystal report, you create
a query using the BusinessObjects Query Panel. What must you do to access the underlying data
source?
A. Create a local cache of the data source.
B. Create a connection to the data source.
C. Create a local ODBC resource for the data source.
D. Log in to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are creating a Crystal report to show just the Top N countries in an international sales report based
on total sales for the previous quarter. The value of N is dynamic.
Which method must you use to achieve the required result?
A. Using the Group Select Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Add a conditional formula to
view just the Top N countries.
B. After creating a parameter to set the value of N, reference that parameter within the Group Sort Expert.
Refresh the report setting the value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
C. Using the Group Sort Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Refresh the report setting the
value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
D. After creating a parameter to set the value of N, refresh the report to view just those countries with a
grand total that is greater than N.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You design a Crystal summary report that is grouped by Region then by Customer Name. The Details
section is hidden. The report includes a bar chart that displays total orders by Customer Name for each
Region group. Which procedure will display the chart beside the sections that show Customer Name and
Total Sales?
A. Place the chart in the Group Header #1 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
B. Place the chart in the Details section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
C. Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
D. Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
Answer: A

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NO.11 You want to use the Workbench feature to manage multiple reports and publish them to
BusinessObjects Enterprise as object packages. Your manager is concerned that any Crystal user could
access and make changes to the reports located on the Workbench. How can you address your
manager's concerns?
A. Encrypt object packages.
B. Password protect object packages.
C. Assign appropriate permissions to object packages that are published to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
D. Track changes on object packages using the Dependency Checker.
Answer: C

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NO.12 You need a report that shows all customers and allows the report reader to view either a report listing all
days in the month to date or to view only the customers with daily sales greater than $5000. You decide to
use report alerts to accomplish this. Which formula properly sets the alert condition.?
A. Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000
B. Sum ({Orders.Order Date}, {Orders.Order Amount}, "daily") > 5000}
C. IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN crCondition = "Enabled"
D. IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN AlertMessage =
"Enabled"
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which special field can you use to display the date a report was last changed?
A. Modification Date
B. Modification LastDate
C. Modification LastUpdate
D. Modification Time
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which method can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report?
A. Select the Field option from the Insert menu.
B. Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
C. Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
D. Click the Field button on the Formatting toolbar.
Answer: C

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NO.15 You copy a report from BusinessObjects Enterprise and modify the report. Which two methods can you
use to save changes back to BusinessObjects Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A. Save the report using the Report Explorer.
B. From the Main menu, select Save and choose Enterprise.
C. From the Main menu, select Save and choose Web Folders.
D. Save the report using the Repository Explorer.
Answer: B,D

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NO.16 What two configuration options are valid for long Lists of Values (LOV) in Crystal Reports 2008?
(Choose two.)
A. UI Batch Size
B. Database Timeout
C. Maximum LOV Size
D. Maximum Rowset Records
Answer: A,C

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NO.17 You want to see a list of formulas containing references to a specific field. Which method can you use?
A. Browse Field
B. Repository Explorer
C. Formula Field Search
D. Global Formula Search
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which two statements describe how optional prompts behave in Crystal Reports 2008? (Choose two.)
A. If no value is entered in the prompt, all values are returned.
B. If no value is entered in the prompt, no values are returned.
C. If the parent prompt is optional, the child prompt must be optional.
D. If the child prompt is optional, the parent prompt must be optional.
Answer: A,C

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NO.19 In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time. Which two menu options become
available when you right-click one of the selected objects? (Choose two.)
A. Move
B. Insert
C. Delete
D. Copy
E. Cut
Answer: D,E

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NO.20 When should you use parameters?
A. When creating conditional Top N reports.
B. When identifying the data source location.
C. When identifying trends in data.
D. When creating dynamic groups.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C_TERP10_65
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified - Associate Business Foundation & Integration with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 121 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-20

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NO.1 A purchasing group (choose all that apply):
A. Is assigned to a purchasing organization
B. Represent a individual or group of buyers
C. Are responsible for certain purchasing activities
D. Are assigned in the material master data
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 Goods receipt into stock in quality inspection can be preplanned in which of the following.
(Choose all that apply)
A. In the Material master
B. On the GR
C. On the PO
D. On the Vendor Info record
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 The basis functions in SAP are provided by (choose the correct answer):
A. SAP XI
B. SAP EP
C. SAP Web AS
D. SAP BI
Answer: C

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NO.4 Material master records must be maintained for consumable materials. True/False)
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 A GR is used for goods received from which of the following scenarios: (Choose all that apply)
A. External procurement from a vendor
B. Stock transfer
C. Transfer posting
D. From a production order
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 What of the following determines the views available when creating a material master?
(Choose the correct answer)
A. Info type
B. Item category
C. Material type
D. Movement type
Answer: C

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NO.7 Enterprise Services Architecture (ESA) enables business innovation by (choose all that apply):
A. Leveraging existing IT assets
B. Reducing total cost of ownership
C. Increasing time to implementation
D. Maximizing agility
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 The subareas of People Integration in NetWeaver include (choose all that apply):
A. Integration broker
B. Collaboration
C. Portal infrastructure
D. Multi-channel access
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 Which of the following are available in LIS? (Choose all that apply)
A. SIS
B. PURCHIS
C. TIS
D. PMIS
E. INVCO
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

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NO.10 Which of the following are Account Assignment categories for consumable materials? (Choose
all that apply)
A. COGS
B. Cost center
C. Project
D. Profit Center
E. Asset
F. Sales order
Answer: B,C,D,E,F

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NO.11 Which of the following describe data and transactions in the SAP system? (Choose all that
apply)
A. A document is created for each transaction carried out in the system
B. Transaction codes determine the relevant master data
C. Master data ensure the redundancy of data in the system
D. Applicable organizational elements must be assigned for each transaction
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 The information integration component of NetWeaver include which of the following (pick
one):
A. SAP EP
B. SAP BI
C. SAP XI
D. Microsoft.Net
E. SAP PLM
Answer: B

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NO.13 In material planning, the MRP views and the Warehouse Management views must be created.
(True/False)
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following are item categories for a BOM? (Choose all that apply)
A. Stock item
B. Class item
C. Variable-size item
D. Inventory item
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.15 MySAP Business Suite includes? (Choose all that apply):
A. MySAP ERP
B. MySCM
C. MyCRM
D. Netweaver
E. MySAP SRM
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

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Exam Code: P_ADM_SEC_70
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Technology Professional - Security with SAP NetWeaver 7.0)
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Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-20

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NO.1 A customer uses an LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol ) enabled directory server. To simplify
the administration of SAP users, Central User Administration (CUA) was introduced. Now there are plans
to synchronize the LDAP enabled directory server with the CUA. Which of the following statements are
true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. The SAP user field: BNAME is already a standard for most of the LDAP enabled directory server.
Therefore the field mappings can be easily customized.
B. The synchronization of fields can be controlled via a mapping transaction in SAP ABAP.
C. A prerequisite for the communication between the CUA and the LDAP enabled directory server is to
open the LDAP(s) port in the firewall environment, if a firewall is used.
D. The communication between LDAP and the CUA is based on PI 7.1. Therefore, SAP specific PI
adapter ports must be open in the firewall environment.
E. A SAPROUTER must be used to establish the proper connection between the SAP CUA and the LDAP
provider.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Which of the following is not a fundamental part of a Regulatory Security Policy?
A. Why is it being done?
B. What is to be done?
C. When it is to be done?
D. Who is supposed to do it?
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements regarding SSO and SAP Logon Tickets are true?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Users have the same user ID and password in all of the systems they access using SAP Logon
Tickets.
B. The end users' Web browsers accept cookies (SAP GUI not in use).
C. The clocks for the accepting systems are synchronized with the ticket-issuing system.
D. The SSO ticket is issued after successful login to the SAP NetWeaver AS Java.
E. The cookie is stored in the temporary folder of the local GUI.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 Which areas in the SAP environment does the SAP Security Optimization Self Service check?
A. SAPouttab (SAPRouter)
B. WGate and AGate configuration (SAP ITS)
C. SSL check for the SAP J2EE Engine
D. Customized settings in the NW AS ABAP environment
Answer: C

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NO.5 The SAP Web dispatcher gets information about the application servers and groups required for load
distribution from the message server and application servers. HTTP is used for this communication.
You want to change this communication to HTTPS.
Which of the following statements are true?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The SAP Web Dispatcher must be set up for Secure Socket Layer (SSL).
B. The message server must be set up for Secure Socket Layer (SSL).
C. The internal group: !DIAGS must be empty.
D. The SAP Web Dispatcher must be able to accept the server certificates from the message server.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 Which of the following considerations are important if a customer plans to use the Internet Connection
Manager (ICM) in SAP NetWeaver AS 7.0, together with Microsoft Internet Explorer? Note: There are 2
correct answers to this question.
A. The use of the TCP/IP ports must be agreed with the security/network department.
B. The location of the SAP NetWeaver AS 7.0 within the network topology must be agreed with the
network department.
C. The SAP Gateway Port 3300 must be taken into consideration for the ICM.
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which of the following authentication mechanisms is not accepted by SAP NetWeaver Portal 7.0?
A. SAML Assertions
B. User ID / password
C. X.509 client certificates
D. SNC based authentication
E. Web Access Management (WAM) products
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is a characteristic of the Segregation of Duties (SOD) principle?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. The SOD principle is a preventive control.
B. The SOD principle is a detective control.
C. Enforcing the SOD principle means that no single individual can carry out a critical task that could
prove to be corruptive to the company.
D. Enforcing the SOD principle means that individuals are capable of performing the tasks for different
roles, rather than depending on just one individual.
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Which of the following statements regarding the SAP Security Optimization Service are true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. It is a local service offered by the SAP Solution Manager.
B. The service can be performed at any time.
C. All checks are automated for the service.
D. The service focuses on internal and external system security.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Which of the following statements regarding regulations is false?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. SOX (Sarbanes-Oxley Act) is a binding regulation for companies traded at the US stock market.
B. ITIL (IT Infrastructure Library) represents a universally applicable framework for optimum handling of
processes in IT management.
C. The focus of CobiT (Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology) is on auditors, not on
IT management and IT end users.
Answer: A,B

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NO.11 Which of the following statements regarding load balancers are true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. With a reverse proxy, you can route incoming requests to different services based on the URL path.
B. The SAP Web Dispatcher is a full-fledged reverse proxy.
C. The SAP Web Dispatcher uses SAP Logon Groups in Enterprise Portal scenarios.
D. You can administer the SAP Web Dispatcher using transaction: WEBDISP.
E. You can combine the SAP Web Dispatcher and web switches in the demilitarized zone (DMZ).
Answer: A,E

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NO.12 Which of the following authentication mechanisms are available for SAP NetWeaver AS Java.?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Security session IDs for Single Sign-On between applications
B. SAP Logon Tickets for Single Sign-On
C. SAML Assertions for Single Sign-On
D. Web Dynpro for Single Sign-On
E. Kerberos Authentication for Single Sign-On
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.13 When is it acceptable not to take action on an identified risk?
A. Never. Good security has to address and reduce all risks.
B. When political issues prevent this type of risk from being addressed.
C. When the necessary countermeasure is too complex.
D. When the cost of the countermeasure outweighs the value of the asset and the potential loss.
Answer: D

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NO.14 After the installation of SAP Web Dispatcher you want to create additional users to administer SAP
Web Dispatcher. Where are these users stored?
A. In the table USR02 in AS ABAP.
B. In the local database of SAP Web Dispatcher.
C. In the filesystem.
D. In the table WEBDISP_USER in AS Java.
Answer: C

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NO.15 When you use the Central User Administration (CUA), when will your changes to user data become
effective in the child systems? Please also consider the options that the Application Link Enabling
technology (ALE) offers.
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Changes are replicated immediately.
B. The changes can be replicated by the background job "CUA_Distribute" in the central system.
C. The IDocs that transport the changes to the user master data in the child systems can be collected and
transferred at a later time, triggered by a background job.
D. The changes can be replicated by selecting the button "Distribute all data" in transaction SCUA.
E. The data for CUA will be replicated to the child systems every 60 minutes if no other
setting/configuration overrides this default value.
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: C_TFIN52_05
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Solution Consultant Financials - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 2005)
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Total Q&A: 299 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-20

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NO.1 Chart of depreciation is assigned to company code and necessary data for asset accounting is added
to company code. Hence company code is available for use in asset accounting
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following statements about financial reporting are correct.?
A. When displaying a financial statement, the system can automatically calculate the profit and loss
statement result.
B. You can obtain a summarized financial statement for any hierarchy level defined in the financial
statement version
C. A financial statement version cannot include more than one company code, unless you are using FI-LC
D. A financial statement version displays either a balance sheet or a profit and lost statement, not both.
E. The system can translate a financial statement into any currency for reporting purposes.
Answer: E

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NO.3 You define a financial statement version in two steps: (Choose Two)
A. Enter in the directory of financial statement versions
B. Define hierarchy levels and assign accounts
C. None of the above
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 All reconciliation accounts and all G/L accounts with open item transactions in foreign currency must
be assigned to the G/L account for realized losses and gains. Which of the following options exist for this
assignment: (Choose Two)
A. A single G/L account can not be used per currencies and currency types.
B. A single G/L account can be used per currency.
C. A single G/L account can not be used per currency type
D. A single G/L account can be used for all currencies and currency types
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 mySAP ERP delivers standard depreciation areas and additional areas cannot be defined
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.6 Each company code has its own number range and company codes cannot share number ranges
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.7 Several charts of depreciation can also be assigned to an asset class
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.8 When you create asset master records this data is automatically adopted from the asset class you
specify
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.9 Payment Medium Workbench. (Choose Three)
A. New format can be created with little programming experience.
B. PMW facilitates uniformity.
C. Before PMW it is easy to maintain the program used in payment media.
D. PMW facilitates for select vendor open items during automatic payment run
E. In PMW format can easily be changed with making modification.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.10 Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose Three)
A. A house bank can be assigned to a business area within the payment program configuration
B. A House bank account can be defined in more than one currency
C. The payments program can use a different House bank for each different payment method
D. When creating a House bank, you do not need to specify the country.
E. House bank master data must be created in advance, before assigning the House bank to a payment
method in the payment program configuration
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.11 In a Payment method definition: (Choose Two)
A. Define allowed currency for company code
B. Define allowed currency for country level
C. Define a maximum and min payment
D. Define house bank link
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 Profit and Loss using the Period Accounting and Cost of Sales Accounting:
A. The operating result can be different.
B. In Cost of Sales accounting, the output of a period and the total cost of this period are
summarized
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
E. In period accounting the sales revenue for a period and sales costs of the period are
summarized.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Controlling area can include one or more company codes
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.14 You cannot specify attributes of each individual depreciation area
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.15 Chart of depreciation is a catalog of country specific depreciation areas structured according to various
business aspects
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.16 You define number assignment as either internal or external
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.17 Chart of accounts can be modified to fit your requirements, but chart of depreciation is always country
specific
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.18 Debit Balance Check. (Choose Three)
A. Debit balance check can be maintained in the Vendor line items.
B. Vendor who has a debit balance, all of his line items always shown in the exception list
C. We can change the debit balance check.
D. Debit balance check can be carried out after payment run.
E. Debit Balance check is required if Vendor has a debit balance.
F. Debit balance check is carried out after payment proposal.
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.19 Chart of depreciation (Choose Three)
A. is assigned to company code
B. you cannot add/delete additional areas
C. it is also possible to open depreciation areas after the production start of the system
D. you can delete areas you do not need
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.20 Asset classes (Choose Five)
A. consist of a master data section and a depreciation area section
B. for each depreciation area you can propose depreciation attributes for assets, you can choose that
they be specified by the system
C. are assigned to at least one chart of depreciation
D. consist of a master data section only
E. asset classes are created at client level
F. for each depreciation area you can propose depreciation attributes for assets
G. you can suppress individual depreciation areas in each asset class
H. asset classes are created at company code level
Answer: A,B,C,E,G

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NO.21 Highest priority for deriving functional area is:
A. Manual Entry
B. Validation
C. CO document
D. Substitution
E. CO Master Data
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which of the following statements about creating customer master records are correct?
(Choose Four)
A. The company code is always a required entry.
B. An account group always gets assigned to a customer.
C. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or optional,
depending upon the company code
D. The account number may be assigned by the user externally.
E. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or optional,
depending upon the account group
Answer: B,C,D,E

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NO.23 Asset class is a selection criterion in all standard reports in FI-AA
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.24 Layout for the master data of each asset class defines
A. number of tab pages
B. field groups that appear on tab pages
C. names of tab pages
D. all are correct
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of following statements are correct?
A. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are already created in
financial accounting but not yet created in sales and distribution.
B. The customer master data compares the customers in the legacy system with the customers in the R/3
System.
C. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are already created in
purchasing but not yet in sales and distribution.
D. The customer mater data comparison program checks whether the customer master record contains a
telephone number.
Answer: A

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NO.26 Screen layout rules control
A. field selection
B. all are correct
C. maintenance level
D. references/copies
Answer: B

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NO.27 Cross company code Transaction
A. For cross company code transaction no configuration needs to be maintained
B. Cross company code document Transaction number contain company code of second
company number, document number of first company code and fiscal year.
C. All wrong
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which of the following about vendor transaction is correct (Multi)? (Choose Two)
A. A vendor down payment request is a noted item.
B. A vendor down payment request cannot be included in payment program to produce down payment
C. A vendor down payment is cleared after final invoice is received from vendor.
D. Vendor down payment is shown on balance sheet under normal reconciliation account for payables.
E. Special g/l transaction is one, which is included in spl purpose ledger under coding block in G/L
account
Answer: A,C

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NO.29 Drilldown reporting is a tool that enables you to analyze G/L account transaction figure and financial
statements
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.30 An account group (multi) (Choose Three)
A. Is defined for every company code.
B. Defines the number range for a mater record.
C. Uses a field status group to control the field layout for the maintenance of mater records
D. Determines one-time accounts for accounts payable and accounts receivable.
Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Code: C-BOE-30
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.x)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 239 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-20

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NO.1 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from
running on-demand
reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
Answer: D

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NO.2 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server
take when the
Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server
(FRS)
Answer: B

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NO.3 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise
infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal
Reports Job
Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A

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NO.4 Where does the Web Intelligence Report Server send a Web Intelligence Report after
it generates the
report to make it available to users on demand?
A. Web Intelligence Job Server
B. Output File Repository Server (FRS)
C. Web Application Server (WAS)
D. Report Application Server (RAS)
Answer: C

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NO.5 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes
scheduled List of
Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
Answer: B

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NO.6 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You
want to add another
Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports Job Server
service. Using
the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager, which three tasks must you
perform.?
(Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central
Management
Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of
the
Desktop Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object?
(Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.10 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose
four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.11 You design a Crystal Report on your own computer. The report connects to an Oracle
database using
ODBC. You wish to publish the report to your BusinessObjects Enterprise environment to
enable users to
view it on demand. Which are requirements for viewing the report on demand? (Choose two.)
A. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on
the report
designer s machine.
B. The Crystal Reports Job Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on
the report
designer s machine.
C. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on
the report
designer s machine.
D. The Crystal Job Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on the
report
designer s machine.
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space
required for the drive
holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB
C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C

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NO.13 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter
(WCA)?
(Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 Which characteristic of the Web Intelligence Job Server enables it to provide stability
and efficiency for
running large or complex reports?
A. Runs jobs as individual processes
B. Runs jobs using a sync-safe threads
C. Uses them ark-and-sweep garbage collection algorithm
D. Uses hash tables and smart pointers
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups?
(Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 In which two locations can you create List of Values (LOV) objects? (Choose two.)
A. Business View Manager
B. Crystal Reports
C. Central Management Console
D. List of Values Job Server
Answer: A,B

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NO.17 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from
the initial Install
type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.18 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which three .NET InfoView login page properties can you configure? (Choose three.)
A. Central Management Server (CMS) name that shows on the login page
B. Default user name that appears on the login page
C. Application name that appears in the title bar of the web browser
D. Authentication type that displays on the login page
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.20 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server?
(Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.1 The availability check (ATP) is carried out based on which of the following dates?
A. The material availability date
B. The transportation planning date
C. The goods issue date
D. The loading date
Answer: A

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NO.2 During sales order processing, a user will be alerted when stock is not available for material
entered in the sales order if the availability check was carried out. In which of the following ways
will the user be alerted about this situation?
A. An error message will appear on the status bar alerting the user to the situation.
B. The schedule line will be marked and highlighted by the system.
C. The availability control screen will be displayed.
D. The incompletion log will display the unconfirmed schedule line as a missing field.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You want to restrict what materials a customer can order. What do you use to achieve this?
A. Material group
B. Assortment module
C. Material listing
D. Product hierarchy
Answer: C

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NO.4 In the system, it is possible to have zero stock available and still receive a confirmed
schedule line
in the sales order. Which of the following states the reason for this confirmation?
A. Stock will be taken from another delivery at the shipping point.
B. The system automatically searches other plants for inventory and transfers this inventory to
the
plant with zero inventory in the sales order.
C. The availability check that was carried out included a replenishment lead time in the scope of
check.
D. A stock transfer will be created by inventory management when you save the sales order.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following elements can directly influence whether an availability check will be
performed? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The schedule line category in the sales document
B. The item category in the delivery document
C. The check group in the material master
D. The item category in the sales document
E. The sales document type
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 Which of the following statements regarding material determination are correct? Note:
There are
2
correct answers to this question.
A. Condition tables must be defined in Customizing (IMG).
B. The definition of the substitution reason determines whether a manual or an automatic
substitution process should be used.
C. The material determination procedure is assigned to a combination of sales areas, customer
pricing procedures, and document pricing procedures.
D. The relevant substitution reason is specified in the access sequence.
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 The entry for the assignment of the incompleteness procedures to the sales document types
contains the following information: Sales Type: OR Description: Standard Order Procedure: 11
Description: Sales Order Field: IC-dialog is flagged. Which of the following conclusions can you
draw from this entry?
A. Incomplete standard orders must be released in a dialog for further process steps.
B. Procedure 11 specifies which fields in standard orders (header data) are checked for
completeness and order type OR cannot be saved if any of the fields are incomplete.
C. Incomplete standard orders can be saved after a warning message (dialog) appears.
D. Incomplete standard orders can be saved.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components ensures company-wide unification of
data
and information in heterogeneous IT environments?
A. Business Warehouse
B. Knowledge Management
C. Enterprise Portal
D. Master Data Management
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following statements regarding the free goods process is correct?
A. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity will always create a subitem.
B. Free goods with inclusive bonus quantity will always take place without a subitem being
generated.
C. The free goods calculation rule only allows for whole unit free goods bonus increments.
D. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity must contain the same material for the ordered
goods
and the free goods.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components realizes cross-system application
processes?
A. SAP Exchange Infrastructure (SAP XI) / SAP Process Integration (SAP PI)
B. SAP Master Data Management (SAP MDM)
C. SAP Enterprise Portal (SAP EP)
D. SAP Business Warehouse (SAP BW)
Answer: A

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NO.1 What can be used to give a supplier an advantage in a live auction?
A. Cascading line items
B. Lotting
C. Reference price
D. Factored-cost bidding
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which SAP MDM component is used to schedule automated data imports?
A. MDM Import Manager
B. MDM Server
C. MDM Import Server
D. MDM Connector
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which documents are created for an invoice entered for a local purchase order in the
standalone
scenario?
A. Accounting document in SRM
B. Invoice in ERP
C. Invoice in SRM
D. Accounting document in ERP
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 What can be used in MDM Data Manager to calculate the percentage of a price change
for catalog
items?
A. Assignments
B. Validations
C. Matching rules
D. Transformations
Answer: A

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NO.5 Accounting data is supplied according to the SAP SRM system configuration.
For which shopping carts is this data ignored?
A. For shopping carts which are subject to a purchaser completion workflow
B. For shopping carts in the extended classic scenario
C. For shopping carts referring to procurement cards
D. For shopping carts for direct material
Answer: D

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NO.6 What control setting is maintained in the transaction type of an RFx?
A. Allow automatic extension
B. Allow surrogate bidding
C. Allow multiple currencies
D. Allow bidders to add new items
Answer: D

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NO.7 You can transfer lookup data from ERP and SRM to SRM-MDM. What data can only
be transferred
from ERP to SRM-MDM?
A. Product categories
B. UOM ISO codes
C. Purchasing organizations
D. Currencies
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which attribute within the organizational plan specifies the backend system where the
account
assignment data is checked?
A. System alias for accounting systems
B. System alias for logical system
C. System alias
D. System alias for vendor
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which mode in the MDM Data Manager allows you to assign attributes to categories in
a hierarchy?
A. Taxonomy mode
B. Record mode
C. Matching mode
D. Hierarchy mode
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which follow-on documents can be the result of an SRM confirmation of goods in the
classic scenario.?
A. Acknowledgement and inbound delivery
B. Material document and accounting document
C. Inbound delivery and material documents
D. Accounting document and inbound delivery
Answer: B

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NO.11 What option in Import Manager is used to map 1 source field to multiple destination
fields?
A. Compounding
B. Adding
C. Cloning
D. Renaming
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is used in MDM Import Manager to determine whether records are new or already
exist in the
repository?
A. Value Conversion
B. Default Import Action
C. Record Filtering
D. Matching Field(s)
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which item data can be defined prior to the start of a live auction? (Choose two)
A. Reserve price
B. Binding period
C. Automatic extension
D. Reference price
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 For which kind of auctions do you use proxy bidding?
A. For auctions without lots
B. For auctions without overall best bid validation
C. For auctions with bid decrements at the auction header
D. For auctions without reserve price
Answer: A

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NO.15 Where is the setting that enables a purchaser to enter a bid on behalf of a supplier?
A. Business Partner
B. Implementation Guide (IMG)
C. Vendor Group
D. Organization Plan
Answer: A

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