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Exam Code: JN0-521
Exam Name: Juniper (FWV.Associate (JNCIA-FWV))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-25

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NO.1 What is the purpose of the "Permitted IP" address on a ScreenOS device?
A.It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.
B.It is used in policy rules to determine which user traffic is allowed through the ScreenOS device.
C.It defines which range of addresses that can access devices connected to the ScreenOS device.
D.It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.
Answer: A

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NO.2 When a firewall receives the first packet in a series, what will it immediately do?
A.Check its route table.
B.Check its session table.
C.Determine if traffic is crossing zones.
D.Verify that it is not malformed or a fragment.
Answer: D

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NO.3 When managing a ScreenOS device using the WebUI and performing an image upgrade, from which
hardware component will the ScreenOS image be loaded?
A.TFTP server
B.PC local disk
C.internal flash
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: B

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NO.4 In the command, save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 abcd.cfg merge, which function does the merge
parameter specify?
A.The config file from the TFTP server will replace the configuration in RAM.
B.The config file from the TFTP server will replace the startup configuration file in internal flash.
C.The merge parameter is not valid for TFTP files, it is only valid for configuration files stored in internal
flash.
D.The config file from the TFTP server will be combined with the configuration file in RAM and the
combined result will be saved in internal flash.
Answer: D

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NO.5 By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?
A.NVRAM
B.TFTP server
C.internal flash
D.PCMCIA card
Answer: C

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NO.6 In the packet forwarding decision process, how is the second packet handled differently than the first
in a series of allowed interzone packets?
A.The second packet causes an ARP query.
B.The second packet is checked against the policy table.
C.The second packet is forwarded without a sanity check.
D.The second packet is forwarded without checking the route table.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are two benefits of configuring a ScreenOS device in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A.There is no need to reconfigure the IP addresses of routers or protected servers.
B.There is no need to create MIPs or VIPs for incoming traffic to reach protected servers.
C.Policies are easier to create since you do not have to include source and destination IP addresses.
D.The product can support more VPNs and obtain greater throughput because there is less overhead to
manage.
Answer: AB

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which two forms of address translation would have generated the output shown? (Choose
two.)
A.MIP
B.NAT-src with no DIP
C.Interface-based translation
D.NAT-src with a DIP, fixed-port disabled
Answer: BC

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which interface would be used to forward traffic to host 1.1.7.5?
A.e0/1
B.e0/2
C.e0/3
D.e0/4
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which type of NAT is performed when you implement interface-based NAT?
A.source IP address translation
B.destination IP address translation
C.source IP and port address translation
D.destination IP and port address translation
Answer: C

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NO.11 By default, where are changes stored when a save command is issued from the CLI during a
management session?
A.NVRAM
B.internal flash
C.PCMCIA card
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the purpose of the "Manage-IP" address on a ScreenOS device?
A.It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.
B.It is used in policy rules to determine which device is allowed to manage the ScreenOS device.
C.It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.
D.It defines a list of device addresses that can manage the ScreenOS device without being authenticated
prior to session establishment.
Answer: C

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NO.13 An operational firewall needs a configuration loaded and executed while it is passing user data.
Which CLI command will perform this process without interrupting traffic?
A.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to flash
B.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to ram
C.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg merge
D.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to flash
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which statement is correct regarding administrator privileges?
A.Any administrator can change their privileges on an as-needed basis.
B.Administrator privileges can only be established and changed by the root administrator.
C.Administrator privileges can be established and changed by the root and all-privilege administrator.
D.Administrator privileges can only be established by the root and can be changed by the root and
all-privilege administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.15 When performing an image upgrade using the CLI, which three locations would be a source for this
image? (Choose three.)
A.FTP server
B.TFTP server
C.internal flash
D.PC local disk
E.Compact Flash Card
Answer: BCE

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NO.16 Which statement accurately describes the "config rollback" feature?
A.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to re-apply a previously saved
configuration file from flash.
B.The "config rollback" feature is enabled by default, it allows the administrator to re-apply a previously
saved configuration file from flash.
C.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to re-apply a locked
configuration file from a separate area in flash.
D.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to revert to the prior ScreenOS
image or configuration file in the event an upgrade operation aborts.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which ScreenOS WebUI button reorders policies?
A.Shift
B.Move
C.Reorder
D.Transfer
Answer: B

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NO.18 You are looking at the event log of the responding device and it says,
"Rejected an initial Phase 1 packet from an unrecognized peer gateway"
What are three likely reasons for the failure? (Choose three.)
A.The peer ID is misconfigured.
B.The default gateway is missing.
C.The preshare keys are mismatched.
D.The gateway address is misconfigured.
E.The outgoing interface is misconfigured.
Answer: ADE

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NO.19 Which command would you run to check IPSec Phase 1 active status?
A.get sa
B.get event 427
C.get sa active
D.get ike cookie
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which process describes how an addressed physical interface is moved into a Layer 2 zone?
A.Place the required interface into the VLAN zone.
B.Place the required interface into L2 zones such as V1-Trust, V1-Untrust
C.Remove the interface from the L3 zone such as Trust and place it into a L2 zone such as V1-Trust
D.Remove the address from the interface, remove the interface from the L3 zone, and then place
interface in the L2 zone.
Answer: D

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NO.21 Which two statements are true in regards to a ScreenOS firewall in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A.VPNs can terminate to the VLAN1 interface IP address.
B.Static routes must be configured if multiple virtual routers are going to be used.
C.It can be installed in a network without the requirement to reconfigure IP addressing schemes.
D.You must use the console port to manage the device as you cannot manage the device using an
Ethernet port.
Answer: AC

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NO.22 When changes are made to the running config during a WebUI management session, to what external
hardware component can the changes be saved?
A.FTP server
B.TFTP server
C.PC local disk
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: C

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NO.23 A ScreenOS firewall is running in transparent mode. The firewall receives a packet which has no entry
in its forwarding table.
What will the firewall do?
A.Flood out all ports.
B.Check its route table for interzone destination.
C.Perform a policy lookup to determine the interfaces to which the source address is permitted, and flood
the packet out of those interfaces.
D.Perform a policy lookup to determine the zones to which the source address is permitted, and flood the
packet out the interfaces bound to those zones.
Answer: D

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NO.24 What is the purpose of the VLAN1 interface?
A.It provides policy-based NAT for 802.1Q VLANs.
B.It provides an interface that can be used with 802.1Q VLANs in transparent mode.
C.It provides the ScreenOS device with a routable IP address while operating in route mode.
D.It provides an interface that can be used to remotely manage the ScreenOS device while operating in
transparent mode.
Answer: D

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NO.25 You are configuring an interface in the untrust zone with an IP address, telnet enabled, and WebUI
management.
Which sequence of steps must be performed to make the interface operational at the end of the
configuration sequence?
A.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, enable Web and telnet services.
B.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, accept default management services.
C.Assign the interface to a virtual router, define the IP address, enable Web and telnet services.
D.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, define a manage IP address, accept default
management services.
Answer: A

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NO.26 A ScreenOS firewall has the correct interfaces addressed and active. A policy is written allowing
interzone FTP traffic from a directly connected client. But the traffic does not cross the firewall from the
client to the server.
What is the most likely problem with the firewall?
A.The ScreenOS firewall has no physical connection to the FTP server.
B.The ALG option on the ScreenOS firewall has not been enabled for FTP traffic.
C.The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP servers' subnet.
D.The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP clients subnet.
Answer: C

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NO.27 What will change the root admin password?
A.set admin password
B.set root-admin password
C.set admin password
D.set admin user password
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which command is used when configuring web management on the VLAN1 interface for a client
connected to an e3 interface in the DMZ zone?
A.set int eth3 manage web
B.set zone v1-dmz manage web
C.set int dmz zone manage web
D.set int VLAN1 zone dmz manage web
Answer: B

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NO.29 Telnet management has been enabled on an interface in the untrust zone.
What else should be completed to limit telnet access to the ScreenOS device from trusted management
PCs?
A.Define a permitted IP address.
B.Define a policy from trust to untrust.
C.Define a trusted IP in the address table.
D.Define a manage IP address on this interface.
Answer: A

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NO.30 When configuring a firewall in a critical environment where a local backup configuration is quickly
needed, what should be completed on a periodic basis?
A.Execute exec config rollback.
B.Execute save config to last-known-good.
C.Execute save regularly or create a script that does this.
D.Execute save software from flash to pcmcia .
Answer: B

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Exam Code: JN0-311
Exam Name: Juniper (WX, Associate(JNCIA-WX))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 123 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-25

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NO.1 Which statement is true about compression subnets?
A. Compression subnets are turned on by default.
B. Compression subnets advertise remote routes.
C. Compression subnets are usually LAN-side subnets.
D. Compression subnets are usually WAN-side subnets.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which three statistics does the Executive report summarize? (Choose three.)
A. latency and loss
B. compression results
C. traffic (by application)
D. CRC and alignment errors
E. user access (by username)
Answer: ABC

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NO.3 What are two ways to view the system log files on a WX device? (Choose two.)
A. Use the CLI and enter show log.
B. Use the CLI and enter show all.
C. Use the CLI and enter show logging.
D. In WebView, choose Admin > Tools > Display System Log.
Answer:AD

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NO.4 Which two secure remote access methods are available on the WX platforms? (Choose two.)
A. SSL
B. SSH
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
Answer:AB

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NO.5 Which two configurations are made using the QoS Setup Wizard? (Choose two.)
A. Assign applications to traffic classes.
B. Use ToS/DSCP values for traffic classes.
C. Exclude subnets from QoS management.
D. Select dedicated vs. over-subscribed circuits.
Answer:AD

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NO.6 What is NSC's functionality?
A. Web caching
B. sequence caching
C. memory-based compression
D. next-generation compression
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two statements describe the criteria bandwidth detection uses to dynamically alter bandwidth
allocation? (Choose two.)
A. Throughput is raised as latency decreases.
B. Throughput is based on available bandwidth.
C. Throughput is lowered as latency decreases.
D. Latency is measured by SYNs returned for each metapacket.
Answer:AB

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NO.8 Which three locations in WebView allow you to confirm that the endpoints are configured properly?
(Choose three.)
A. Monitor > Endpoints
B. Acceleration > Endpoints
C. Device Setup > Endpoints
D. Compression > Endpoints
E. Admin > Maintenance > Display Configuration
Answer:ADE

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NO.9 Which two environments would take advantage of TCP Acceleration (AFP)? (Choose two.)
A. satellite networks
B. low-latency networks
C. long-haul link with 95% compressibility.
D. long-haul link with 10% compressibility.
Answer:AC

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NO.10 Which two patented or patent-pending compression and caching technologies are used for WX/WXC
devices? (Choose two.)
A. Network Sequence Caching (NSC)
B. Molecular Sequence Caching (MSC)
C. Network Sequence Reduction (NSR)
D. Molecular Sequence Reduction (MSR)
Answer:AD

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Exam Code: JN0-130
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet specialist.e(jncis-e))
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Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-25

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NO.1 Which three statements about Label-Switched Paths (LSPs) are true? (Choose three.)
A. LSPs are bidirectional.
B. LSPs are unidirectional.
C. LSPs can be signaled by CAC.
D. LSPs can be configured explicitly.
E. LSPs can be configured dynamically.
Answer: BDE

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NO.2 Which two BGP attributes are incorporated for loop prevention within an AS using a route reflection
configuration? (Choose two.)
A. AS Path
B. Next Hop
C. Cluster List
D. Originator ID
Answer: CD

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NO.3 Why would you make a non-backbone area a stub or not-so-stubby area?
A. to aggregate routes learned from the ABR
B. to lower the cost of routes advertised by the ABR
C. to connect a non-contiguous area to the backbone
D. to decrease the size of the link-state database in that area
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which CLI command is used to set a Privileged Exec password of mypassword?
A. enable password 0 mypassword
B. enable password 3 mypassword
C. enable password 5 mypassword
D. enable password 10 mypassword
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which CLI command disconnects all subscribers on an ATM PVC?
A. clear port 4/3.99
B. logout port 4/3.99
C. clear subscriber port 4/3.99
D. logout subscriber port 4/3.99
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which configuration command places interfaces whose IP addresses are between 192.168.0.0 and
192.168.255.255 into OSPF area 0?
A. network 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 area 0.0.0.0
B. network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0.0.0.0
C. area 0.0.0.0 network 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0
D. area 0.0.0.0 network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which CLI command displays the status of a PPP over Ethernet subinterface?
A. show pppoe interface
B. show ppp int state up
C. show ip interface brief
D. show pppoe subinterface
Answer: D

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NO.8 Is the IS-IS Designated Intermediate System (DIS) election process called Deterministic or Static and
why?
A. It is Static. If the priorities are equal for a new neighbor and the current DIS only.
B. It is Deterministic. If the well-known pseudonode and system ID is configured on the new neighbor only.
C. It is Deterministic. When a new router appears on a multi-access network with a higher priority value, it
is elected as the DIS.
D. It is Static. When a new intermediate system powers up on a multi-access network, even if it has a
higher priority, it may become a backup DIS.
Answer: C

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NO.9 In a Bridged 1483 network, which set of commands is used to configure an ATM subinterface?
A. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
description Company-XYZ
encapsulation bridge1483
ip address unnumbered loopback0
B. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
description Company-XYZ
encapsulation bridge1483
ip unnumbered loopback0
C. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
encapsulation bridge1483
description Company-XYZ
ip address unnumbered loopback0
D. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
encapsulation bridge1483
description Company-XYZ
ip unnumbered loopback0
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two types of routes may be advertised via EBGP? (Choose two.)
A. Routes that do not originate in the local AS and are learned by OSPF.
B. Routes that originate on the local router and are advertised into OSPF.
C. Routes that are transiting the local router and are BGP learned routes.
D. Routes that originate on the local router and are injected using a route map.
Answer: CD

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NO.11 Which three statements are true regarding the DHCP Internal Server? (Choose three.)
A. Can be in remote-access mode.
B. Can be in equal-access mode.
C. Can be in standalone mode.
D. Standalone mode is the default.
E. Equal-access mode is the default.
Answer: BCE

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NO.12 Which two services protect the ERX Edge Router from unauthorized CLI logins?
A. IPSec
B. SecureID
C. local passwords
D. default IP policy
E. RADIUS authentication
Answer: CE

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16. Your ERX Edge Router is constantly going to a boot## prompt.
What is the most likely cause for this condition?
A. bad SRP
B. low voltage
C. bad mid-plane
D. corrupted flash
Answer: D

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17. Which sequence of events describes the order used to restore normal router operation after
experiencing a corrupted flash?
A. initialize flash, reload, copy new system files from FTP server
B. reload, copy new system files from FTP server, initialize flash
C. initialize flash, copy new system files from FTP server, reload
D. reload, initialize flash, copy new system files from FTP server
Answer: C

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18. You are trying to recover from a corrupted flash.
Which configuration command configures an IP address of 192.168.1.1/24 on the SRP management
interface when the ERX1400 router is at the boot## prompt?
A. ip address 192.168.1.1/24
B. ip address 192.168.1.1 subnetmask 24
C. ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
D. ip address 192.168.1.1 mask 255.255.255.0
Answer: C

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19. What describes the functionality of NTP when using multiple virtual routers?
A. All virtual routers can act as NTP clients and servers.
B. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP client and a server.
C. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP server but all can be clients.
D. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP client but all can be servers.
Answer: D

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20. Which configuration command is used to make the ERX Edge Router an NTP server?
A. set ntp-server
B. set ntp server
C. ntp-server enable
D. ntp server enable
Answer: D

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21. Which configuration command allows a virtual router to receive updates from a configured NTP
source?
A. ntp enable
B. enable ntp
C. set ntp-client
D. enable ntp-client
Answer: A

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22. Which configuration command is used to send debug level events to the console in real time?
A. log here severity debug
B. log destination console severity debug
C. log severity debug destination console
D. log realtime destination console severity debug
Answer: B

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23. Which command initiates a packet trace for all PPP packets on interface atm 6/1.33 ?
A. log filter debug pppPacket atm 6/1.33
B. log severity debug pppPacket atm 6/1.33
C. log filter debug category pppPacket atm 6/1.33
D. log severity debug category pppPacket atm 6/1.33
Answer: B

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24. Log messages are appearing very quickly on the console of your ERX Edge Router.
Which Privileged Exec command disables real-time console logging?
A. no log here
B. no log console
C. destination console severity 7
D. destination console logging off
Answer: A

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25. Which two configuration commands are required to direct debug level console logging to your current
ERX Edge Router Telnet session? (Choose two.)
A. log here
B. log telnet here
C. log destination console severity 7
D. log destination telnet severity debug
Answer: AC

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26. A log filter of log severity DEBUG pppPacket ATM 4/3.66 is configured within the category of
pppPacket.
Which configuration command removes this specific log filter?
A. no log severity pppPacket
B. no log severity debug pppPacket
C. no log severity pppPacket atm 4/3.66
D. no log severity debug pppPacket 4/3.66
Answer: C

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27. Which configuration command removes all log filters currently configured on the ERX Edge Router?
A. no log here
B. no log fields
C. no log filters
D. no log severity
Answer: C

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28. Which three statements describe macros on the ERX Edge Router? (Choose three.)
A. They prompt users for input.
B. They cannot prompt users for input.
C. They can be created on the router itself.
D. They are an embedded programming language.
E. They can be created on the user's workstation.
Answer: ADE

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29. Which command is used to execute a macro called setup.mac ?
A. macro setup
B. macro setup.mac
C. run macro setup
D. run macro setup.mac
Answer: B

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30. Which control expression must be the last line in all macros?
A. <# end #>
B. <# finish #>
C. <# endtmpl #>
D. <# terminate #>
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which message type is used to initiate an RSVP-TE label switched path?
A. path
B. resv
C. setup
D. session
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which CLI command displays the VRFs that are operational within each virtual router?
A. show vir
B. show ip vrf
C. show vrf vir
D. show mpls vrf
Answer: A

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NO.15 You would like to view all Fast Ethernet interfaces currently using VLAN tagging and the specific VLANs
each interface is using.
Which CLI command displays this information?
A. show fast interface
B. show vlan interface
C. show vlan subinterface
D. show fast interface vlan
Answer: C

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Exam Code: JN0-541
Exam Name: Juniper (IDP, Associate(JNCIA-IDP))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 230 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-23

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NO.1 Which rule base would detect netcat?
A. SYN protector
B. traffic anomalies
C. backdoor
D. exempt
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement is true regarding IDP rule matching on a sensor?
A. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, and service will be
processed further.
B. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, and service will be
processed further, unless the particular rule is terminal.
C. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, service, and attack object
will be processed further.
D. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, service, and attack object
will be processed further, unless the particular rule is terminal.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which OSI layer(s) of a packet does the IDP sensor examine?
A. layers 2-7
B. layers 2-4
C. layer 7 only
D. layers 4-7
Answer: A

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NO.4 A newly re-imaged sensor is running IDP 4.0 code. You want to assign IP address
10.1.1.1 to the sensor. Which method do you use to do this?
A. Connect to the sensor's console port, login as root, and answer theEasyConfig
B. Use SSH to connect to the sensor at IP 192.168.1.1.Login as root, and run ipconfig.
C. Connect to the sensor's console port, login as admin, and answer theEasyConfig
D. Use SSH to connect to the sensor at IP 192.168.1.1.Login as admin, and run ipconfig.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Exhibit:
You work as an administrator at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibit carefully. In the exhibit, which SYN
protector mode is the IDP using?
A. passive
B. handshake
C. relay
D. protective
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is "a deviation from a protocol's expected behavior or packet format"?
A. context
B. compound attack object
C. attack signature
D. protocol anomaly
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statement is true about packet capture in the IDP sensor?
A. The Log Viewer has no indication of whether a log message has associated packet captures.
B. You can only log packets after an attack packet.
C. You can configure a particular number of packets to capture before and after an attack.
D. Packet capture records all packets flowing through the sensor.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement is true about the attack object database update process?
A. Each sensor updates its own attack object database automatically; however they must be able to
access the Juniper site on TCP port 443.
B. The attack object database update must be manually performed by the administrator, and the
administrator must manually install it on each sensor.
C. The attack object database update can be initiated manually or automatically.
D. The attack object database update can be automatically scheduled to occur using the Security
Manager GUI.
Answer: C

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NO.9 On a sensor, which command will indicate if log messages are being sent to Security Manager.?
A. scio vr list
B. serviceidp status
C. scio agentstats display
D. scio getsystem
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statement about the Enterprise Security Profiler (ESP) is true?
A. The ESP must be configured and started using the IDP sensor CLI before it is used.
B. The administrator must manually initiate Security Manager to sensor polling to retrieve ESP data.
C. The ESP must be configured and started on each IDP sensor manually, using the Security Manager
GUI.
D. The ESP is started by default in IDP version 4.0 or newer.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which two will change the management IP of an IDP sensor? (Choose two.)
A. Edit the existing IDP sensor object in Security Manager GUI and change the IP address.
B. Delete the IDP sensor object from Security Manager and re-add the sensor with the new IP address.
C. Useifconfig to change the management IP address.
D. Use the ACM to change the management IP address.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 You update your attack object database on Security Manager. What must you do before the new attack
objects become active on the IDP sensors?
A. You install the updated security policy on the IDP sensor.
B. No changes are required.
C. You must restart the IDP sensor.
D. You must restart the IDP processes on the IDP sensors.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which type of cable do you use for a console connection to an IDP sensor?
A. CAT 5 cable
B. Juniper proprietary cable
C. straight-through serial cable
D. null-modem cable
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is one use of an IP action?
A. It blocks subsequent connections from specific IP addresses.
B. It modifies the IP header to redirect the attack.
C. It modifies the IP header to prevent the attack.
D. It permits or denies the traffic, based on the IP header.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which command on the IDP sensor CLI can be used to display the sensor statistics, which policy is
installed, and mode of sensor deployment?
A. sctop "s" option
B. sensor statistics can only be displayed from Security Manager GUI
C. scio list s0 sensor stat
D. scio sensor stat
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which TCP port is used for communication between Security Manager and an IDP sensor?
A. 7801
B. 7800
C. 7803
D. 443
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which three fields in a packet must match an IDP rule before that packet is examined for an attack?
(Choose three.)
A. terminate match
B. service
C. destination address
D. source address
E. attack object
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.18 When connecting to a sensor using SSH, which account do you use to login?
A. admin
B. super
C. netscreen
D. root
Answer: A

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NO.19 After you enable alerts for new hosts that are detected by the Enterprise Security Profiler, where do you
look in Security Manager to see those alerts?
A. Security Monitor > Profiler > Application Profiler tab
B. Security Monitor > Profiler > Violation Viewer tab
C. Security Monitor > Profiler > Network Profiler tab
D. Log Viewer > Profiler Log
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which rule base would detect the use of nmap on a network?
A. SYN protector
B. traffic anomalies
C. backdoor
D. exempt
Answer: B

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Exam Code: JN0-330
Exam Name: Juniper (JN0-330-Enhanced Services, Specialist(JNCIS-ES))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-23

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NO.1 Which two are characteristics of link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Routers choose a best path for a destination based on the SPF algorithm.
B. All routers in a given area or level build a consistent database describing the network's topology.
C. Routers choose the best path for a destination based on the interface on which they received the link
stateadvertisement with the lowest cost.
D. All routers in a given area or level forward link state advertisements between interfaces in the same
area or level,
adding their metric to the link state advertisement's cost information when they forward it.
Answer:AB

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NO.2 Which statement is true about interface-based static NAT?
A. It also supports PAT.
B. It requires you to configure address entries in the junos-nat zone.
C. It requires you to configure address entries in the junos-global zone.
D. The IP addresses being translated must be in the same subnet as the incoming interface.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A route-based VPN is required for which scenario?
A. when the remote VPN peer is behind a NAT device
B. when multiple networks need to be reached across the tunnel
C. when the remote VPN peer is a dialup or remote access client
D. when a dynamic routing protocol such as OSPF is required across the VPN
Answer: D

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. Three physical interfaces are redundant.
B. You must define an additional Redundancy Group.
C. node 0 will immediately become primary in the cluster.
D. You must issue an operational command and reboot the system for the above configuration to take
effect.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Host A opens a Telnet connection to Host B. Host A then opens another Telnet connection to Host B.
These connections are the only communication between Host A and Host B. The security policy
configuration permits both connections. How many flows exist between Host A and Host B?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
host_a is in subnet_a and host_b is in subnet_b.
Given the configuration shown in the exhibit, which statement is true about traffic from host_a to host_b?
A. DNS traffic is denied.
B. Telnet traffic is denied.
C. SMTP traffic is denied.
D. Ping traffic is permitted.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the configuration shown in the exhibit, what will happen to the traffic matching the security
policy?
A. The traffic is permitted through the myTunnel IPSec tunnel only on Tuesdays.
B. The traffic is permitted through the myTunnel IPSec tunnel daily, with the exception of Mondays.
C. The traffic is permitted through the myTunnel IPSec tunnel all day on Mondays, Wednesdays between
7:00 am and 6:00 pm, and Thursdays between 7:00 am and 6:00 pm.
D. The traffic is permitted through the myTunnel IPSec tunnel all day on Mondays, Wednesdays between
6:01 pm and 6:59 am, and Thursdays between 6:01 pm and 6:59 am.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Interface ge-0/0/2.0 of your router is attached to the Internet and is configured with an IP address and
network mask
of 71.33.252.17/24. A host with IP address 10.20.20.1 is running an HTTP service on TCP port 8080. This
host isattached to the ge-0/0/0.0 interface of your router. You must use interface-based static NAT to
make the HTTP service on the host reachable from the Internet.
On which IP address and TCP port can Internet hosts reach the HTTP service?
A. IP address 10.10.10.1 and TCP port 8080
B. IP address 71.33.252.17 and TCP port 80
C. IP address 71.33.251.19 and TCP port 80
D. IP address 71.33.252.19 and TCP port 8080
Answer: D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Which type of source NAT is configured in the exhibit?
A. static source pool
B. interface source pool
C. source pool with PAT
D. souce pool without PAT
Answer:A

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NO.10 You want to create a policy allowing traffic from any host in the Trust zone to hostb.example.com
(172.19.1.1) in the
Untrust zone. How do you do create this policy?
A. Specify the IP address (172.19.1.1/32) as the destination address in the policy.
B. Specify the DNS entry (hostb.example.com.) as the destination address in the policy.
C. Create an address book entry in the Trust zone for the 172.19.1.1/32 prefix and reference this entry in
the policy.
D. Create an address book entry in the Untrust zone for the 172.19.1.1/32 prefix and reference this entry
in the policy.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which three security concerns can be addressed by a tunnel mode IPSec VPN secured by AH?
(Choose three.)
A. data integrity
B. data confidentiality
C. data authentication
D. outer IP header confidentiality
E. outer IP header authentication
Answer:ACE

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NO.12 On which three traffic types does firewall pass-through authentication work? (Choose three.)
A. ping
B. FTP
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
E. HTTPS
Answer: BCD

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what is the purpose of this OSPF configuration?
A. The router sends the file debugOSPF (containing hellos sent and LSA updates) to the syslog server.
B. The router traces both OSPF hellos sent and LSA updates, and stores the results in the debugOSPF
file.
C. The router traces both OSPF hellos sent and LSA updates, and sends the results to the syslog process
with the debugOSPF facility.
D. The router traces all OSPF operations, stores the results in the debugOSPF file, and marks both hellos
sent and LSAupdates in the file with a special flag.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which two are components of the JUNOS software's routing policy? (Choose two.)
A. route-map
B. prefix-list
C. distribute-list
D. policy-statement
Answer: BD

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NO.15 You want to enable SSH and Telnet access to the router's CLI. Under which configuration hierarchy
would you enable these protocols?
A. [edit system cli]
B. [edit security cli]
C. [edit system services]
D. [edit security services]
Answer: C

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NO.16 You must configure a SCREEN option that would protect your router from a session table flood.
Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. [edit security screen]
user@hostl# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
icmp {
ip-sweep threshold 5000;
flood threshold 2000;
}
B. [edit security screen]
user@hostl# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
tcp {
syn-flood {
attack-threshold 2000;
destination-threshold 2000;
}
C. [edit security screen]
user@hostl# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
udp {
flood threshold 5000;
}
D. [edit security screen]
user@hostl# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
limit-session {
source-ip-based 1200;
destination-ip-based 1200;
}
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which parameters must you select when configuring operating system probes SCREEN options?
A. syn-fin, syn-flood, and tcp-no-frag
B. syn-fin, port-scan, and tcp-no-flag
C. syn-fin, fin-no-ack, and tcp-no-frag
D. syn-fin, syn-ack-ack-proxy, and tcp-no-frag
Answer: C

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NO.18 In JUNOS software with enhanced services, which three packet elements are inspected to determine
if a session
already exists? (Choose three.)
A. IP protocol
B. IP time-to-live
C. source and destination IP address
D. source and destination MAC address
E. source and destination TCP/UDP port
Answer:ACE

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NO.19 A traditional router is better suited than a firewall device for which function?
A. VPN establishment
B. packet-based forwarding
C. stateful packet processing
D. network address translation
Answer: B

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, client PC 192.168.10.10 cannot ping 1.1.1.2.
Which is a potential cause for this problem?
A. The untrust zone does not have a management policy configured.
B. The trust zone does not have ping enabled as host-inbound-traffic service.
C. The security policy from the trust zone to the untrust zone does not permit ping.
D. No security policy exists for the ICMP reply packet from the untrust zone to the trust zone.
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which two statements regarding asymmetric key encryption are true? (Choose two.)
A. The same key is used for encryption and decryption.
B. It is commonly used to create digital certificate signatures.
C. It uses two keys: one for encryption and a different key for decryption.
D. An attacker can decrypt data if the attacker captures the key used for encryption.
Answer: BC

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NO.22 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what is the priority for Router B in VRRP group 100?
A. 1
B. 100
C. 110
D. 255
Answer: B

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NO.23 Using a policy with the policy-rematch flag enabled, what happens to the existing and new sessions
when you change the policy action from permit to deny?
A. The new sessions matching the policy are denied. The existing sessions are dropped.
B. The new sessions matching the policy are denied. The existing sessions, not being allowed to carry
any traffic, simply timeout.
C. The new sessions matching the policy might be allowed through if they match another policy. The
existing sessions are dropped.
D. The new sessions matching the policy are denied. The existing sessions continue until they are
completed or their timeout is reached.
Answer:A

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NO.24 Users can define policy to control traffic flow between which two components? (Choose two.)
A. from a zone to the router itself
B. from a zone to the same zone
C. from a zone to a different zone
D. from one interface to another interface
Answer: BC

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NO.25 Which three parameters are configured in the IKE policy? (Choose three.)
A. mode
B. preshared key
C. external interface
D. security proposals
E. dead peer detection settings
Answer: ABD

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NO.26 You are not able to telnet to the interface IP of your JUNOS software with enhanced services device
from a PC on the same subnet. What is causing the problem?
A. Telnet is not being permitted by self policy.
B. Telnet is not being permitted by security policy.
C. Telnet is not allowed because it is not considered secure.
D. Telnet is not enabled as a host-inbound service on the zone.
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which two are components of the enhanced services software architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Linux kernel
B. routing protocol daemon
C. session-based forwarding module
D. separate routing and security planes
Answer: BC

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NO.28 Which command allows you to view the router's current priority for VRRP group 100 on interface
ge-0/0/1.0?
A. show vrrp
B. show vrrp group 100
C. show interfaces ge-0/0/1.0 vrrp group 100
D. show interfaces vrrp ge-0/0/1.0 group 100
Answer:A

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NO.29 In a JSRP cluster with two J6350 routers, the interface ge-7/0/0 belongs to which device?
A. This interface is a system-created interface.
B. This interface belongs to NODE0 of the cluster.
C. This interface belongs to NODE1 of the cluster.
D. This interface will not exist because J6350 routers have only six slots.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: JN0-360
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-SP))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 252 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-23

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NO.1 Which Junos platform supports provider bridging?
A. T Series devices
B. SRX Series devices
C. MX Series devices
D. MAG Series devices
Answer: D

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NO.2 For a network running single-area OSPF, how would you decrease the size of the link-state
database (LSDB)?
A. Implement RIP as an overlay protocol on all devices.
B. Add more devices to the OSPF network to help with LSDB processing.
C. Reduce the frequency of hello timers throughout the network.
D. Implement OSPF areas.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which label operation is performed by an MPLS transit router?
A. inject
B. pop
C. push
D. swap
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about MPLS VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. With Layer 3 VPNs, the provider's routers participate in the customer's Layer 3 routing.
B. MPLS VPNs are designed to run over private networks rather than the public Internet.
C. With Layer 2 VPNs, the provider does not participate in the routing of the customer's private IP
traffic.
D. MPLS VPN tunnels are always encrypted.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 What are Martian addresses on a Junos device?
A. IP addresses that are reserved for use only with MPLS VPNs.
B. IP addresses that are never installed in the routing table.
C. IP addresses that are reserved for use only with GRE tunnels.
D. IP addresses specifically used for out-of-band management.
Answer: A

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7. Which statement correctly describes the difference between a generated and an aggregate
route?
A. An aggregate route can be a supernet whereas generated routes are classful.
B. A generated route has a forwarding next hop that is inherited from a contributing route.
C. An aggregate route has a forwarding next hop that is inherited from a contributing route.
D. Only aggregate routes can be re-advertised through BGP using a policy.
Answer: B

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8. Which statement is true regarding the default master routing instance?
A. All IPv4 routes in the master routing instance are shared with user-defined routing instances.
B. Interface routes in the master routing instance are shared with user-defined routing instances.
C. Routes in the master routing instance are not shared with user-defined routing instances.
D. All routes in the master routing instance are shared with user-defined routing instances.
Answer: C

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9. Which routing table contains the route information for the user-defined routing instance
called Candidate1?
A. inet.Candidate1.0
B. Candidate1.inet.0
C. inet.0
D. Candidate1-inet.0
Answer: B

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10. Which two routing-instance types are used for non-VPN-related applications? (Choose two.)
A. virtual-router
B. vrf
C. forwarding
D. vpls
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 In which environment would you run BGP?
A. a company spread across multiple floors of a building
B. a company with a single office
C. a home network
D. the public Internet
Answer: C

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Exam Code: JN0-380
Exam Name: Juniper (Wireless LAN, Specialist (JNCIS-WLAN))
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Total Q&A: 86 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-23

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NO.1 What is the maximum allowed configurable SSIDs per radio?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
Answer: C

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NO.2 You have installed your AP in the proper location on your network. The AP needs to obtain
configuration information from a controller before it can support wireless clients.
What are three methods that an AP uses to do this? (Choose three.)
A. ICMP ping
B. Keepalive packets
C. DNS Lookup
D. L2 Broadcast
E. DHCP Option 43
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.3 What is the hardware requirement for a RingMaster client?
A. Intel/AMD x86-compatible dual core processor, 2.0Ghz, 2GB RAM, 512 MB HD space
B. Intel/AMD x86-compatible single core processor, 2.0Ghz, 2GB RAM, 512 MB HD space
C. Intel/AMD x86-compatible single core processor, 2.0Ghz, 1GB RAM, 1024 MB HD space
D. Intel/AMD x86-compatible dual core processor, 1.0Ghz, 1GB RAM, 512 MB HD space
Answer: A

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6. During the installation of RingMaster, you receive the installation error: "HTTPS Server port is
already in use. Please select another port."
What should you do to resolve this issue?
A. Change the HTTPS Server port number to 443.
B. Change the HTTPS Server port number so that it does not conflict with other applications.
C. Restart the installation process so that RingMaster can resolve the issue.
D. Change the SNMP Trap Receiver port to 162.
Answer: B

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7. You are asked to troubleshoot a communication problem between a WLC and a RADIUS server.
You verified that the RADIUS server is reachable from the WLC.
Which WLC CLI command would be used for troubleshooting RADIUS connectivity?
A. rfping
B. show authentication
C. ping
D. radping
Answer: D

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8. In an auditorium, you have 200 wireless clients connecting to the wireless network. You want
to
configure RF load balancing to distribute client sessions across multiple APs in the area.
Which two parameters are configurable to achieve this? (Choose two.)
A. setting strictness
B. configuring auto-tune
C. defining transmit rates
D. setting band preference
Answer: A,D

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9. You want to provide secure wireless services to one set of clients on your network and allow
open
access services to your guest clients. You need to configure service profiles for each type of
access to the network.
Which three methods are used to accomplish this? (Choose three.)
A. Configure one service per WLA.
B. Configure an encryption type.
C. Configure IP addresses.
D. Configure SSIDs.
E. Configure VLANs.
Answer: B,D,E

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10. Multiple users are complaining that their wireless connections are not working.
Which RingMaster screen would the administrator use for troubleshooting?
A. Alarms
B. Clients
C. Monitor
D. Verification
Answer: C

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NO.4 A user repeatedly calls in to the Help desk complaining about their wireless connection.
Which actions would test the user's wireless connectivity from RingMaster?
A. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
run the Location History option to find out if the client is near a functioning access point.
B. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
run the RF ping test to determine RSSI and retry counts to verify the RF environment being
reported by the AP to which the client is connected.
C. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
choose to terminate the client from the wireless network so they can reestablish a new session.
D. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
add the client to the Watched Client list to gather additional data on the clients signal strength and
data throughput.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which Juniper Networks WLA model supports spectrum analysis?
A. WLA371
B. WLA422
C. WLA532
D. WLA632
Answer: C

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