2014年2月24日星期一

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Exam Code: HP2-B100
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Imaging and Printing Solutions (HP2-B100))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is one way to study publically available information about your customers?
A. conduct a workshop with them
B. obtain annual financial reports from other verticals
C. obtain facilities spending and marketing budget information
D. use websites and annual reports
Answer: D

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Explanation:
You don't need to conduct a workshop or obtain annual financial reports or even obtain facilities
spending and market budget information to study the information needed to understand your
customer. The information you need is available in detail on their websites and in their annual
reports. You'd get an overview of finances, marketing budget information and other relevant
information easily from their websites. Since this information is available publicly, customers put it
on the websites and publish annual reports.

NO.2 What is an example of business networking?
A. reading a company's tweets
B. following the links on a company's website
C. using LinkedIn to find common contacts
D. attending an online workshop for professional development
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement is true about how customers typically view office printing costs?
A. Customers typically look at the cost of supplies and hardware, but they do not consider IT costs.
B. Customers typically look at IT costs and the cost of supplies, but they do not consider hardware
costs.
C. Customers typically look at hardware and IT costs, but they do not consider cost of supplies.
D. Customers typically look at hardware costs, but they do not consider IT costs or the cost of
supplies.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Most customers look for the total cost of ownership. The normally include supplies and hardware
but they ignore the costs of personnel working to make sure the printing solutions work properly
and without any problems. IT costs are not generally considered.

NO.4 How do you best evaluate a customer's needs?
A. by conducting onsite visits
B. by talking to your customer's customers
C. by ordering something from your customer and noting your experience
D. by reading online reviews of the company
Answer: A

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Explanation:
You need to visit the customer at his office and conduct a one-to-one meeting to understand his/her
needs.

NO.5 What is most important to remember about both transactional and consultative sales?
A. You should focus primarily on the volume of sales.
B. You should focus only on your margin.
C. You should minimize time spent with customers.
D. You should focus on your customer's business problems.
Answer: D

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Reference: http://theblueprint.typepad.com/theblueprint/ 2006 / 05 /consultative_ve.html

NO.6 What is an accurate description of an imaging and printing solution?
A. a long-term strategic plan
B. a combination of hardware and software to address the problem
C. a new printer
D. a review of all available software that works with imaging and printing devices
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The imaging and printing solution is a combination of hardware and software working together to
address paper intensive business processes. The imaging solution is normally a scanner and the
printing solution is a printer. These machines use specific software to work and provide a host of
tools to address paper intensive business problems.

NO.7 How is office printing costs typically calculated for a document?
A. only the cost of the printing hardware
B. only the cost of the printing hardware and the annual cost of the supplies
C. only the cost for administration and for the hardware of the printer
D. the cost of the network management, supplies, hardware, and administration
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Typically, office printing costs are calculated by taking network management,
supplies, hardware and administration into account. All of these things are calculated and divided
by the number of prints an office produce each year.

NO.8 What should you know about your customer's business before you call on them?
A. the number of hits on their website
B. their line of business
C. their employee turnover rate
D. their office hours
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Of course, you should know when the customer is available before you call them.

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Exam Code: HP2-N37
Exam Name: HP (Selling Hp Converged Management and Security Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 HP Converged Cloud combines private, managed, and public cloud environments with
traditional IT infrastructure to deliver an experience built around which focused set of principles?
A. Performance, availability, and quality
B. Choice, confidence, and consistency
C. Operations, execution, and delivery
D. provide unparalleled choice, confidence in the solution and provide consistency
Answer: C

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Reference:http://h10124.www1.hp.com/campaigns/enterprise/converged-cloud/us/en/ 4AA40797E
NW.pdf(page 3, see announcing HP converged cloud)

NO.2 What is HP Converged Cloud comprised of?
A. Converged Infrastructure as a Service, Converged Management and Security, and Converged
Information
B. Converged Services. Converged Management and Security, and Converged Information
C. Solutions that include premise components
D. Infrastructure, operations, and applications
Answer: D

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Reference:https://www.hpcloud.com/content/hps-converged-cloud-architecture(5th bulleted point
on the page)

NO.3 For organizations embracing cloud services as a business strategy and key delivery model that
can increase their ability to tackle organizational challenges, what impact does this have on IT?
A. IT Governance anywhere
B. Infrastructure anywhere, Applications anywhere, information anywhere, services anywhere
C. Security anywhere, Governance anywhere
D. Applications anywhere, Operations anywhere
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h10124.www1.hp.com/campaigns/enterprise/converged-cloud/us/en/ 4AA40797E
NW.pdf(see page 2, see the first heading on the page)

NO.4 What is a common path to Converged Cloud?
A. Cloud governance
B. Cloud infrastructure
C. Cloud-enabled datacenter
D. Cloud performance dashboards
Answer: B

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NO.5 What makes HP Converged Cloud uniquely positioned?
A. Best in class people, processes, and technology
B. Best in class experience, point solutions, and private cloud offerings
C. Best in class products, private cloud, closed architecture, and experience
D. Best in class technology, hybrid delivery, open/extensible/architecture, and experience
Answer: D

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Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/v2 /GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-6946ENW.pdf(see page 4 and 5)

NO.6 For organizations just starting to embrace cloud, what are the challenges of the evolving
current state of hybrid delivery? (Select two.)
A. Reduced business insight
B. Improved time to market
C. Different management and securityframework
D. Reduced complexity
E. Disparate architectures
Answer: C,E

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Reference:http://h10124.www1.hp.com/campaigns/enterprise/converged-cloud/us/en/ 4AA40797E
NW.pdf(page 2, see the promise of cloud services, first para, second last sentence)

NO.7 According to HP , what are the needs of business and government today? (Select three)
A. Accelerating cost
B. Enhancing agility
C. Improving financial management
D. Leveraging diversification
E. improving customization
F. Speeding innovation
Answer: B,C,F

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Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/v2 /GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-6524ENW.pdf(page 2, 4thpara)

NO.8 Which major trend does HP believe is driving cloud adoption?
A. CIO scorecards and KPIs
B. Application transformation and agile delivery of services
C. Outsourced service management and quality assurance
D. Application portfolio consolidation
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-T23
Exam Name: HP (Supporting Industry Standard Server Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 An engineer is installing an HP R7000 UPS and an Extended Runtime Module (ERM) in an
existing HP 10642 G2 rack. This rack contains 10 ProLiant DL380e Gen8 servers mounted from 1U
upward.
How should the engineer perform this installation?
A. Mount the R7000 UPS at 10U in the 10642 G2 rack with the ERM on top of the R7000 UPS.
B. Remove the lowest ProLiant DL380e Gen8 servers and mount the R7000 and the ERM at the
lowest position in the rack. Mount the removed ProLiant DL380e Gen8 servers at a higher position
in the 10642 G2 rack.
C. Mount the R7000 at the highest position possible in the 10642 G2 rack with the ERM just below
the UPS.
D. Remove the two lowest mounted ProLiant DL380e Gen8 servers and mount the R7000 at the
bottom of the 10642 G2 rack. Mount the two removed ProLiant DL380e Gen8 servers at the top of
the 10642 G2 rack. Mount the ERM above the remaining original mounted ProLiant DL380e Gen8
servers.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which RAID level is known as Advance Data Guarding (ADG)?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Answer: C

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Reference:http://h50146.www5.hp.com/products/storage/whitepaper/pdfs/c00386950.pdf

NO.3 What happens if you lose or misplace a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) key?
A. The system requests the Administrator password.
B. The system enters diagnostic mode.
C. The system will not boot.
D. Data loss might occur.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the name of the HP agent that enables a customer to manage HP software that is
stored in a user-defined repository?
A. Web-Based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
B. Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM)
C. Version Control Agent
D. Data Collection Reports
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h20565.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.BINARYPORTLET/public/kb/doc
Display/resource.process/?spf_p.tpst=kbDocDisplay_ws_BI&spf_p.rid_kbDocDisplay=docDisplay
ResURL&javax.portlet.begCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken&spf_p.rst_kbDocDisplay=wsrpresour
ceState%3DdocId%253Demr_na-c031689542%257CdocLocale%253Den_US&javax.portlet.endCach
eTok=com.vignette.cachetoken(page 20, see HP version control repository manager)

NO.5 You cannot get to the network from any of the server blades in a c7000 enclosure with 10GbE
Pass-Thru modules.
What should you verify first for proper connectivity to the network?
A. Correct SFPs are installed
B. External switch supports at least Gigabit speed
C. Interconnect link between the Pass-Thru modules
D. External switch set to half duplex
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statements are correct about HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) 7.0 Agentless
Management? (Select two.)
A. HP SIM communicates with the CPU and collects essential data for the operating system.
B. Agentless Management is provided by the CPU.
C. HP SIM communicates with the iLO Management Engine to collect hardware data.
D. The Agentless Management Service runs on the host to provide software information directly to
the iLO Management Engine.
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 A customer lost the password information for the Onboard Administrator of a C7000 enclosure
and asks you to restore administrator access.
How should you do this?
A. Connect to the serial port of the Onboard Administrator and press the reset button to restore the
default password.
B. Use HP SUM in Recovery mode.
C. Run the Onboard Administrator Recover option from one of the server blades in the enclosure.
D. Run Remote Insight Board Command Language (RIBCL) from the Insight Display.
Answer: A

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Reference:http://h20566.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.PAGE/public/kb/docDisplay/?sp
4t
s.oid=1844065&spf_p.tpst=kbDocDisplay&spf_p.prp_kbDocDisplay=wsrpnavigationalState%3DdocI
d%253Demr_na-c0111586616%257CdocLocale%253D%257CcalledBy%253D&javax.portlet.begCach
eTok=com.vignette.cac hetoken&javax.portlet.endCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken

NO.8 Which statements are correct about HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) 7.0 Agentless
Management? (Select two.)
A. HP SIM communicates with the CPU and collects essential data for the operating system.
B. Agentless Managements provided by the CPU.
C. HP SIM communicates with the iLO Management Engine to collect hardware data.
D. The Agentless Management Service runs on the host to provide software information directly to
the iLO Management Engine.
Answer: C,D

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Reference:http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c03306157 /c03306157.p
d f(page 2)

NO.9 Which HP utility can patch a ProLiant server with a release set made up of drivers, firmware,
and software that have been tested together?
A. HP Smart Update Firmware DVD
B. HP Version Control Update (VCU)
C. Integrated Lights Out (iLO)
D. Service Pack for ProLiant (SPP)
Answer: D

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NO.10 Microsoft Windows BitLocker Encryption feature uses a TPM microcontroller chip to store
certificates and encryption keys on a DL380 G7.
Which action must a field engineer perform before upgrading server firmware and installing an
additional storage controller?
A. Create new certificates and encryption keys.
B. Disable BitLocker.
C. Delete certificates and encryption keys.
D. Disable TPM.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-Z27
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Networking Solutions and Services)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which FlexNetwork technologies are designed to simplify the network architecture? (Select
two.)
A. Software-Defined Networking (SDN)
B. HP TippingPoint Security Management Systems (SMS)
C. Dynamic Quality of Services (QoS) policies
D. HP Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)
E. HP Systems Insight Manager (SIM)
Answer: D,E

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Reference:http://www3.networktest.com/hpirf/hpirf1.pdf

NO.2 What is the core component of HP FlexManagement?
A. HP Virtual Application Manager (VAN) Software-Defined Networking (SDN) Manager
B. HP Intelligent Management Center (IMC)
C. HP Virtual Connect Manager (VCM)
D. HP Systems Insight Manager (SIM)
Answer: B

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Reference:http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/HP_FlexNetwork_Architecture(Last para of the page)

NO.3 Your customer is at the Mitigate Risks stage in the buying cycle for an HP storage solution.
Which of these tasks should you perform at this stage?
A. Determine the customer requirements for scalability, data consolidation, and backup solutions.
B. Offer HP Design Services and offer the customer financial services if needed.
C. Diagnose the customer technical challenges and quantify the business problem or need.
D. Review the potential impacts on the customer environment and then recommend an HP solution.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement correctly describes customers who purchase HP Network Support Services as
compared to customers who rely only on the included warranty?
A. They are more satisfied and more likely to purchase another HP solution in the future.
B. They are no more satisfied but more likely purchase another HP solution in the future.
C. They are more satisfied but no more likely to purchase another HP solution in the future.
D. They are no more satisfied and less likely to purchase another HP solution in the future.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A company wants to provide redundancy at the network core with minimal failover times.
What would you recommend to meet this goal?
A. Virtual Router Redundancy (VRRP)
B. HP Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)
C. Multi Protocol Label Switching (MPLS)
D. Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)
Answer: A

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NO.6 In the FlexNetwork architecture, where is the HP 2920 Switch Series recommended as a lead
product?
A. OnlyFlexBranch
B. FlexFabric and FlexCampus
C. FlexBranch and FlexCampus
D. FlexBranch, FlexCampus, and FlexFabric
Answer: D

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NO.7 In the FlexNetwork architecture, where is the HP 12900 Switch Series a lead-recommended
product?
A. FlexManagement
B. FlexBranch
C. FlexCampus
D. FlexFabric
Answer: D

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first sentence)

NO.8 How does Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) affect company IT decisions?
A. It is currently the third largest factor influencing the demand for wireless networks.
B. It is the single largest demand driver for wireless security technology and wireless/wired
convergence.
C. Companies are decreasing their investment in wired technologies and increasing investments in
wireless infrastructure.
D. Companies are decreasing investments in laptops and other mobile devices.
Answer: B

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2014年2月23日星期日

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NO.1 In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
Answer: E

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NO.2 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on
Physical and Environmental Security?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory,
regulatory or contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance
of systems with organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to
business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and
interruption to business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information
processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for
information security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to
ensure that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized
access to information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent
unauthorized computer access.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your
company. Of the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially
dangerous Social Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the
call the writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite
the administrator to speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller
asks the receptionist the normal business hours that the organization is open to the public.
C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and
software. On the call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in
evaluating. The caller asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk
asking to reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming
from the ISP to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network's
configuration data and the emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover
to the new equipment.
Answer: D, E

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NO.4 During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the
information that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to
evaluate is the information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the
following, what pieces of information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar
B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private)
Answer: A, B, C, D

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NO.5 During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has
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page on the site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this
user most likely getting ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.
C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP .
Answer: A

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NO.1 A load-balancing virtual server has been associated with a pool with multiple members.
Assuming all other settings are left at their defaults, which statement is always true concerning
traffic processed by the virtual server?
A.The client IP address is unchanged whether the traffic is between the BIG-IP and client or the BIG-IP
and server.
B.The server IP address is unchanged whether the traffic is between the BIG-IP and client or the BIG-IP
and server.
C.The TCP ports used in the client to BIG-IP connection are the same as the TCP ports in the BIG-IP to
server connection.
D.The IP addresses used in the client to BIG-IP connection are the same as the IP addresses in the
BIG-IP to server connection.
Correct:A

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NO.2 Which three methods can be used for initial access to a BIG-IP system? (Choose three.)
A.serial console access
B.SSH access to the management port
C.SSH access to any of the switch ports
D.HTTP access to the management port
E.HTTP access to any of the switch ports
F.HTTPS access to the management port
G.HTTPS access to any of the switch ports
Correct:A B F

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NO.3 A site has six members in a pool. All of the servers have been designed, built, and configured
with the same applications. It is known that each client's interactions vary significantly and can
affect the performance of the servers. If traffic should be sent to all members on a regular basis,
which load-balancing method is effective if the goal is to maintain a relatively even load across all
servers?
A.Priority
B.Observed
C.Round Robin
D.Ratio Member
Correct:B

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NO.4 What is the default IP address on a BIG-IP's management port?
A.192.168.1.245/16
B.192.168.1.245/24
C.192.168.245.245/16
D.192.168.245.245/24
Correct:B

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NO.5 Which three files/data items are included in a BIG-IP backup file? (Choose three.)
A.the BIG-IP license
B.the BIG-IP log files
C.the BIG-IP host name
D.the BIG-IP administrative addresses
Correct:A C D

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NO.6 Which three methods are available for remote authentication of users allowed to administer a
BIG-IP system through the Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)
A.LDAP
B.OCSP
C.Radius
D.VASCO
E.Active Directory
Correct:A C E

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NO.7 Which three statements concerning virtual servers are true? (Choose three.)
A.Virtual servers support session persistence.
B.Virtual servers can decrypt and re-encrypt SSL packets.
C.Virtual servers can decrypt and re-encrypted SSH packets.
D.Virtual servers can translate the virtual server address to a chosen pool member's address when
processing traffic.
Correct:A B D

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NO.8 Which statement accurately describes the relation between the two load-balancing modes
specified as "member" and "node"?
A.There is no difference; the two terms are referenced for backward compatibility purposes.
B.When the load-balancing choice references "node", priority group activation is unavailable.
C.Load-balancing options referencing "nodes" are available only when the pool members are defined for
the "any" port.
D.When the load-balancing choice references "node", the address' parameters are used to make the
load-balancing choice rather than the member's parameters.
Correct:D

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NO.9 Which two statements are true concerning differences between BIG-IP platforms? (Choose two.)
A.The 1500 hosts more ports than the 3400.
B.All F5 switch ports are tri-speed; 10, 100 or 1000 Mbps.
C.All BIG-IP platforms use both an ASIC and CPU(s) to process traffic.
D.The 1500 and 3400 are in a 1U chassis while the 6400 is in a 2U chassis.
E.The 1500, 3400 and 6400 have greater SSL capabilities after the initial SSL handshake than the 1000,
2400, and 5100.
Correct:D E

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NO.10 Which two properties can be assigned to a pool? (Choose two.)
A.ratio values
B.priority values
C.health monitors
D.connection limits
E.load-balancing mode
Correct:C E

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NO.1 A switch appears down in Service Assurance Manager. After trying to troubleshoot the problem, an
operator finds out that the switch has been removed from service. Why didn't this switch automatically
become Unmanaged in Smarts?
A.IP Availability Manager needs to be restarted to remove this switch.
B.Other devices that were connected to this switch are still reachable by Smarts.
C.This switch requires rediscovery.
D.Unmanaging devices is a manual process.
Answer:D

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button. A router monitored by these polling settings has just been polled, and the
operational status of Interface A is DOWN. Ten seconds after the initial poll, the interface operational
status changes to UP. How long will it take from the last poll for the IP Domain Manager to set this
interface's status to UP?
A.15 minutes
B.700 milliseconds
C.9 seconds
D.900 minutes
Answer:A

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NO.3 What does the context filter determine when defining a tool?
A.If the tool is grayed out
B.If the tool is visible
C.The acceptable state for tool use
D.Which attributes are passed
Answer:B

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NO.4 Which Performance Monitor Setting will give early warning that an interface is too busy?
A.IPThreshold
B.Restart Trap Window
C.UnicastThreshold
D.UtilizationThreshold
Answer:D

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NO.5 Which command can be used in a script that will stop the Service Assurance Manager SMARTS-SA?
A.dmquit -s SMARTS-SA --force
B.dmquit -n SMARTS-SA --norestore
C.sm_quit -n SMARTS-SA --norestore
D.sm_quit -s SMARTS-SA --ignore
Answer:A

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NO.6 Oper1, a user, would like to share a saved map with other users. What does the admin need to do?
A.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\conf\console folder on the Global Manager
B.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\conf\consoles folder on the Global Manager
C.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\console folder on the Global Manager
D.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\consoles folder on the Global Manager
Answer:D

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NO.7 Which relationship exists between a card and its ports?
A.ConnectedTo/ConnectedVia
B.HostsAccessPoints/HostedBy
C.MemberSystems/MemberOf
D.Realizes/RealizedBy
Answer:D

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NO.8 The EMEA NOC, America NOC, and Asia NOC each has visibility to regional NOCs. Each regional
NOC implements one or more Smarts applications and uses its own Smarts Service Assurance Manager
to provide an end-to-end view of the region. What needs to be configured to architect EMC Smarts
solutions to view all regions?
A.Hierarchical SAM configuration
B.Smarts Aggregation Adapter
C.Smarts Topology Split Manager
D.Standard SAM configuration
Answer:A

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NO.9 Which relationship exists between a card and its ports?
A.ConnectedVia/ConnectedTo
B.PackagedIn/Packages
C.Realizes/RealizedBy
D.Underlying/LayeredOver
Answer:C

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NO.10 Which sm_server parameters are required when starting a Service Assurance Manager?
A.--name and --config
B.--name and --port
C.--server and --config
D.--server and --port
Answer:A

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button. The current weights.conf file contains: ClassWeight ICIM_ManagedElement 1
Which impact value would be calculated for this Router Down problem?
A.102
B.1000
C.1002
D.10002
Answer:C

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NO.12 To ensure that Discovery probes every IP address on a Class B IP network you set the Discovery filter
to 10.1.*.*. . However, you see that most devices in that range have not been discovered. Why?
A.MaximumHostBits parameter in discovery.conf is set to 8 by default.
B.Some of those IP addresses do not exist.
C.The systems have been throttled and placed on the Pending Device List.
D.You have run out of licenses.
Answer:A

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NO.13 A customer's environment has many different networks that are being managed by Smarts. As a result
of this there are many DuplicateIP notifications. What is an effect on Smarts of having DuplicateIP
notifications?
A.Each duplicated IP object is unmanaged.
B.IP Domain Manager polls twice as often.
C.Network connections will not be represented correctly.
D.Root-cause analysis of other events will be correlated to these Duplicate IPs.
Answer:A

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NO.14 There is a firewall between the servers on which the Domain Managers are running. You are
troubleshooting a connectivity issue with the Smarts deployment. Which command is used to verify the
TCP ports on which the Domain Managers are listening?
A.brcontrol
B.sm_ping
C.sm_service show
D.sm_what
Answer:A

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NO.15 At a customer site, many different networks are being managed by a single IP domain, which is
generating many DuplicateIP alerts in SAM. How can you avoid these DuplicateIP alerts?
A.Filter the Duplicate network
B.Use a different IP-AM for each network
C.Use a different SAM for each network
D.Use IP Tagging
Answer:D

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NO.16 Which relationship of a switch is expanded to view the instances of its ports, in the Topology Browser?
A.ComposedOf
B.HostConnectionPoints
C.Overlaying
D.PartOf
Answer:A

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NO.17 A root-cause problem is presented that states one of a router interfaces is down. What is the
underlying issue?
A.Router interface is administratively down and operationally down.
B.Router interface is administratively up and operationally down.
C.Router is completely down.
D.SNMP Agent on that router is not responding.
Answer:B

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NO.18 Which information is needed by IP Availability Manager to communicate with an EMC Celerra NAS in
addition to its IP address?
A.Control Station port number
B.Data Mover port number
C.Port number
D.Username, password
Answer:D

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NO.19 An organization is looking for a way to effectively scale in an intricate heterogeneous IT environment.
Which part of the Smarts A3 architecture will minimize the manual effort to accomplish this goal?
A.Automation
B.Abstraction
C.Analytics
D.Analysis
Answer:B

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NO.20 A new Windows 2003 Enterprise Server from Vendor XYZ needs to be discovered. The Smarts admin
created an entry for this server in oid2type_Field.conf. .1.3.6.1.4.1.9999.1.12 { TYPE = Switch VENDOR
= XYZ MODEL = Widget5550 CERTIFICATION = TEMPLATE INSTRUMENTATION: Interface-Fault =
MIB2 Interface-Performance = MIB2 } After discovering this new server, which class will it be part of?
A.Host
B.It will not be added to the topology
C.Node
D.Switch
Answer:D

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