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Exam Code: CTAL-TTA_001
Exam Name: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Technical Test Analyst (CTAL-TTA_001))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which additional set of test cases is needed to achieve both 100% statement coverage and
100% decision coverage? 3 credits [K3]
A)
B)
C)
D)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.2 How many test cases are needed to test code fragment lines 26 - 32 to achieve 100% condition
determination coverage? 2 credits [K3]
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the value of statement coverage achieved by test case 1 from test set A? 2 credits [K3]
A. ? 75% (21 / 28)
B. ? 78% (22 / 28)
C. ? 85% (24 / 28)
D. ? 90% (25 / 28)
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which TWO additional structure-based test design techniques could be used to dynamically
test the code? 1 credit [K2]
A. Condition testing
B. Multiple condition testing
C. Equivalence partitioning
D. Cause/effect graphing
E. Code reviews
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 The Bonus Program is perceived by management to be critical. Defects in the program would
almost immediately lead to financial loss. In the past an improvement program has been run to
implement review based on IEEE 1028. Knowledge and skills on both formal and informal reviews
are available. There is also an existing pool of review leaders. Which of the following review types
would you choose to review the program? 2 credits [K4]
A. Informal review
B. Inspection
C. Walkthrough
D. Management review
Answer: B

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NO.6 You have tested the program and have found that with "bonus" a boundary value has not
been implemented according to design. You have written an incident report. Which of the following
is the incident report of the highest quality? 2 credits [K3]
A. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented Priority: High Repeatability: Yes Tester:
WVU Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program"), V1.2
B. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus Priority: Medium Tester: WVU
Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program")
C. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus (line 26: 10 according to design,
now 5 implemented) Priority: High Repeatability: Yes Tester: WVU Test case: 35 (test specification
"bonus program"), V1.2
D. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus Priority: High Repeatability: Yes
Tester: WVU Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program"), V1.2
Answer: C

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NO.7 How many test cases are needed to test code fragment lines 26 - 32 to achieve 100% multiple
condition coverage? 2 credits [K3]
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: D

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NO.8 The application of multiple condition testing is also being considered.
Which specification-based technique is largely based on the principle of multiple condition testing?
1 credit [K2]
A. Equivalence Partitioning
B. State Transition Testing
C. Decision Table Testing
D. Use Cases
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Peoplecert (ITIL 2011 Foundation )
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Total Q&A: 131 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service
provider to deliver customer facing services?
A. Business services
B. Component services
C. Supporting services
D. Customer services
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable
the
implementation of a new service?
A. A service option
B. A service transition package (STP)
C. A service design package (SDP)
D. A service charter
Answer: C

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NO.3 In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements
against
targets?
A. Operational level agreement(OLA)
B. Capacity plan
C. Service level agreement(SLA)
D. SLA monitoring chart(SLAM)
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?
A. Service catalogue management
B. Service asset and configuration management
C. Change management
D. Information security management
Answer: D

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NO.5 The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?
A. Before the change is approved
B. Immediately after the change has failed and needs to be backed out
C. After implementation but before the post implementation review
D. After the post implementation review has identified a problem with the change
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?
A. Standards
B. Technology
C. Academic research
D. Internal experience
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?
A. To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management (ITSM)
activities
B. To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoided
C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
D. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?
A. Reduced total cost of ownership
B. Improved quality of service
C. Improved Service alignment with business goals
D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services
have met their targets?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Change management
C. Service level management
D. Availability management
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following identify the purpose of business relationship management?
1. To establish and maintain a business relationship between service provider and customer
2. To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet
A. Both of the above
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. Neither of the above
Answer: A

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Exam Code: MSC-122
Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Deploy WLAN Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 113 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Your customer has requested that during the upcoming 802.llg to 802.11n upgrade deployment you
enable 40 MHz channels on 1, 6, and 11 of the 2.4 GHz ISM band. You respond by saying that there is not
enough spectrum to allow 40 MHz channels centered on 1, 6, and 11. How wide are standard 802.11g
(OFDM) channels?
A. 20 MHz
B. 83.5 MHz
C. 5 MHz
D. 11 MHz
E. 22 MHz
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is the primary method of collision avoidance in an 802.11 CSMA/CA WLAN?
A. Backoff Timer
B. Carrier Sense
C. Contention Window
D. Enhanced Distributed Channel Access (EDCA)
E. Distributed Coordination Function Interframe Spaces (DIFS)
Answer: B

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NO.3 You have just conducted a throughput test using iPerf on a WLAN that shows a PHY signaling rate of 54
Mbps, however the average throughput rate shown in iPerf is only 23.5 Mbps. What is the most likely
explanation for this condition?
A. This throughput speed is considered nominal.
B. This throughput rate could indicate a mismatch between Wi-Fi confidentiality algorithms.
C. This throughput rate indicates excessive user activity.
D. This throughput rate indicates excessive out-of-band interference such as nearby cell phone towers.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have configured a Motorola RFS controller using WiNG 5 and have attempted to adopt a group of
APs using L2 adoption but the adoption is not successful. You have confirmed the following:
-All of the APs have an Ethernet connection to the same LAN segment as the controller -Spanning Tree
Protocol (STP) has been disabled on the APs next hop switch port -Intermediate firewalls are not blocking
EtherType 0x8783
Given this scenario, which of the following is the most likely cause of the unsuccessful AP adoption?
A. DHCP option 192 has not been defined on the DHCP server
B. A local VLAN has been configured on both the controller and the APs
C. The APs GE ports have been configured for an S02.1q-tagged native VLAN
D. The APs GE ports have been configured for an 802.1q-untagged native VLAN
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are performing a physical site survey of a new WiNG 5 WLAN deployment. Which of the following is
CORRECT?
A. The Signal to Noise Ratio (SNR) is a critical measurement that needs to be addressed.
B. It is acceptable that you use any RF infrastructure device (Access Point) to perform the site survey test.
C. Using default settings of a site survey application will provide an adequate site survey result.
D. Customer throughput requirements are the only criteria for which need to be surveyed.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are deploying a new system and are creating the RF Domain(s). Which of the following options
would you use to group the APs into the same domain?
A. By VLAN, where all APs are on the same subnet.
B. By site, which can be a location where the group of installed APs can hear each other's beacons.
C. By name, so they can be easily sorted in the tree view of the controller.
D. By deployment phase, so configurations can be accidentally pushed to newly installed APs.
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are designing a WLAN that will support multiple BSS IDs. One of the characteristics you need to
take into consideration is that each BSS transmits a beacon every 100 ms. How many BSSs can be
enabled on the following Motorola access points under WiNG 5: AP7131, AP650, AP6532?
A. 2, one per radio
B. 1 per AP, it is shared between the radios to provide seamless roaming
C. 8, four per radio
D. 16, eight per radio
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following APs does not support adaptive mode?
A. AP7131
B. AP6532
C. AP650
D. AP6521
Answer: A

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NO.9 During a recent throughput analysis test of your 802.11g network, you discovered that performance is
poor in comparison to previous baselines. You discover that this is the result of 802.11b stations becoming
associated with your access point. What option could you implement to eliminate 802.lib clients from
attaching to your network?
A. Implement protection mechanisms
B. Make 24 mbps a required data rate
C. Implement RTS/CTS at the access point
D. Change the channel used for the network
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following statements regarding the configuration of Motorola RFS controllers is TRUE?
A. ADSP can be used to push CLI profiles to APs and controllers.
B. LANPlanner can be used to push CLI profiles to APs and controllers.
C. RFMS can be used to perform predictive site surveys using an RFS controller
D. WiNG 5 can be used to perform manual site surveys using an RFs controller
E. CLI can be used to perform both manual and predictive site surveys using an RFS controller.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following statements is NOT considered to be a best practice with respect to the wired
backbone serving the WLAN.?
A. When performing manual configuration of a point-to-point Ethernet link, ensure that both the speed and
the duplex mode settings on the two ports match.
B. When creating a link between Ethernet 10/100BASE-T or 10/100/1000BASE-T ports, enable (or accept
the default of) auto-negotiation on both ports.
C. When creating a link between Gigabit Ethernet fiber ports, enable (or accept the default of)
auto-negotiation.
D. When creating a link between Gigabit Ethernet fiber ports, disable auto-negotiation on both ports.
Answer: D

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NO.12 You have an access point that requires PoE connected to a switch with a 150 meter 10 BASE-T CAT 5
cable. During testing numerous problems with both data transmission and intermittent power occurs.
Which of the following is most likely the cause?
A. The cable should be CAT 6
B. There is a duplex mismatch
C. The cable should be 100 BASE-T
D. The cable is too long
Answer: D

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NO.13 If a Motorola access point induces a 50 mW RF signal onto a 3 dBi antenna, what will be the resulting
EIRP of the transmitted signal?
A. 0 dBm
B. 3 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 50 mW
E. 50 dBm
Answer: C

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NO.14 You are deploying a new WLAN within the WiNG 5 architecture. Which of the following is the only
UNSUPPORTED Motorola access point/port?
A. AP-300
B. AP-650
C. AP-5131
D. AP-7131
Answer: C

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NO.15 Your customer has requested that you configure unique VLANs for voice, normal user data with
802.1X security, guest access, and management traffic. Which of the following VLAN modes can support
this request?
A. Native Mode
B. Access Mode
C. Trunk Mode
D. Aggregation Mode
E. Encapsulation Mode
Answer: C

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Exam Name: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental SOA & Service-Oriented Computing)
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Total Q&A: 76 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is false?
A. A service is a unit of logic to which service-orientation has been applied to a meaningful extent.
B. Services are designed to increase the need for integration.
C. Services are the fundamental building blocks of service-oriented solutions.
D. A service composition is comprised of services.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is true.?
A. To apply service-orientation requires the use of Web services.
B. Web services are required in order to build service-oriented solutions.
C. When discussing SOA and service-oriented computing, the term "Web service" must always be
synonymous with (have the same meaning as) the term "service".
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The design standardization of service contracts helps increase interoperability between services.
B. Design standardization can introduce organizational and cultural challenges because it requires that
the design standards be regularly enforced.
C. The design standardization of service contracts helps avoid the need for transformation technologies.
D. Design standardization is not relevant to the design of service compositions. It is only relevant to the
design of individual services.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Below are four statements about business and technology alignment, as it pertains to service-oriented
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A. Business and technology alignment represents the extent to which an IT enterprise and its automated
systems can mirror and evolve in alignment with the business.
B. Service-oriented computing promotes the abstraction and accurate encapsulation and expression of
business logic in services. This supports business and technology alignment.
C. The pursuit of business and technology alignment can be supported by the collaboration of business
analysts and technology experts during analysis and modeling phases.
D. In order for an IT enterprise to increase business and technology alignment, its business analysts must
become more technical and assume the responsibilities of technology experts so that they can
independently design quality business services that take both business and technology considerations
into account.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is true?
A. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because it makes you think about service contract design
options at the same time that you are building the underlying service logic.
B. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because it forces you to establish standardized service
contracts prior to the development of the underlying service logic.
C. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because without a contract, services cannot be invoked.
However, there is no preference as to when, during the service delivery lifecycle, the contract should be
designed or established.
D. "Contract first" design is an unproven design technique that is not commonly employed when
delivering service-oriented solutions and is therefore not considered important to SOA.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The governance burden of services is not impacted by the SOA project delivery approach.
B. The bottom-up approach to SOA project delivery results in less up-front impact, but will usually
increase the eventual governance burden of services.
C. Alternative approaches exist that provide a compromise between bottom-up and top-down SOA project
delivery approaches.
D. Up-front analysis as part of a top-down SOA project delivery approach helps reduce the eventual
governance burden of services.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following statements does not make sense?
A. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it helps increase the quantity of integration projects that
may be required to accommodate new business requirements, thereby fostering agility.
B. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it enables services to exchange data without having to
resort to transformation technologies.
C. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it is fundamental to enabling services to be repeatedly
composed.
D. Intrinsic interoperability is important because one of the goals of service-oriented computing is to
increase intrinsic interoperability.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following statements accurately describes the strategic benefit of Increased Federation?
A. A target state whereby all services are always consistently delivered as Web services.
B. A target state in which the entire enterprise has been successfully service-oriented.
C. A target state whereby the enterprise has adopted SOA by replacing all legacy environments with
custom-developed services.
D. A target state whereby standardized service contracts have been established to express a consistent
and unified service endpoint layer.
Answer: D

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NO.9 In order to achieve __________ we have traditionally required __________ projects. With
service-orientation, we aim to establish an intrinsic level of __________ within each service so as to
reduce the need for __________ effort.
A. vendor diversity, integration, vendor diversity, design
B. agility, development, scalability, development
C. interoperability, integration, interoperability, integration
D. autonomy, integration, statelessness, integration
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is not a benefit of maintaining a vendor-neutral and business-driven context for a
service-oriented architecture?
A. Establish a technology architecture with a fixed scope and purpose that remains unchanged,
regardless of how the business may need to change over time.
B. Avoid establishing a technology architecture that will need to be replaced in the near future when it no
longer adequately fulfills business requirements.
C. Leverage new technological innovation in order to maximize the fulfillment of business requirements.
D. Establish a technology architecture that can stay in alignment with how the business may need to
change over time.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Service A is an entity service with a functional context dedicated to invoice-related processing. Service
B is a utility service that provides generic data access to a database.
In this service composition architecture, Service Consumer A sends a SOAP message containing an
invoice XML document to Service A (1). Service A then sends the invoice XML document to Service B (2),
which then writes the invoice document to a database.
The data model used by Service Consumer A to represent the invoice document is based on XML
Schema A. The service contract of Service A is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema B. The service contract for Service B is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema A. The database to which Service B needs to write the invoice record only accepts entire
business documents in Comma Separated Value (CSV) format.
Due to the incompatibility of the XML schemas used by the services, the sending of the invoice document
from Service Consumer A through to Service B cannot be accomplished using the services as they
currently exist. Assuming that the Contract Centralization pattern is being applied and that the Logic
Centralization is not being applied, what steps can be taken to enable the sending of the invoice
document from Service Consumer A to the database without adding logic that will increase the runtime
performance requirements of the service composition?
A.Service Consumer A can be redesigned to use XML Schema B so that the SOAP message it sends is
compliant with the service contract of Service A. The Data Model Transformation pattern can then be
applied to transform the SOAP message sent by Service A so that it conforms to the XML Schema A used
by Service B. The Standardized Service Contract principle must then be applied to Service B and Service
Consumer A so that the invoice XML document is optimized to avoid unnecessary validation.
B.The service composition can be redesigned so that Service Consumer A sends the invoice document
directly to Service B. Because Service Consumer A and Service B use XML Schema A, the need for
transformation logic is avoided. This naturally applies the Service Loose Coupling principle because
Service Consumer A is not required to send the invoice document in a format that is compliant with the
database used by Service B.
C.Service Consumer A can be redesigned to write the invoice document directly to the database. This
reduces performance requirements by avoiding the involvement of Service A and Service B. It further
supports the application of the Service Abstraction principle by ensuring that Service Consumer A hides
the details of the data access logic required to write to the database.
D.None of the above.
Answer:B

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NO.2 The Client and Vendor services are agnostic services that are both currently part of multiple service
compositions. As a result, these services are sometimes subjected to concurrent access by multiple
service consumers.
The Client service is an entity service that primarily provides data access logic to a client database but
also provides some calculation logic associated with determining a client's credit rating. The Vendor
service is also an entity service that provides some data access logic but can also generate various
dynamic reports.
After reviewing historical statistics about the runtime activity of the two services, it was discovered that the
majority of concurrent runtime access is related to the processing of business rules. With the Client
service, it is the calculation logic that is frequently required and with the Vendor service it is the dynamic
reporting logic that needs to be accessed separately from the actual report generation.
Currently, due to the increasing amount of concurrent access by service consumers, the runtime
performance of both the Client and Vendor services has worsened and has therefore reduced their
effectiveness as service composition members. What steps can be taken to solve this problem without
introducing new services?
A.The Rules Centralization pattern can be applied by extracting the business rule logic from the Client
and Vendor services and placing it into a new Rules service. This will naturally improve the runtime
performance of the Client and Vendor services because they will no longer be subjected to the high
concurrent access of service consumers that require access to the business rules logic.
B.The Redundant Implementation pattern can be applied to the Client and Vendor services, thereby
establishing duplicate implementations that can be accessed when a service reaches its runtime usage
threshold. The Intermediate Routing pattern can be further applied to provide load balancing logic that
can, at runtime, determine which of the redundant service implementations is the least busy for a given
service consumer request.
C.The Rules Centralization pattern can be applied together with the Redundant Implementation pattern to
establish a scalable Rules service that is redundantly implemented and therefore capable of supporting
high concurrent access from many service consumers. The Service Abstraction principle can be further
applied to hide the implementation details of the Rules service.
D.None of the above.
Answer:B

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NO.3 Service A is an entity service with a functional context dedicated to invoice-related processing. Service
B is a utility service that provides generic data access to a database.
In this service composition architecture, Service Consumer A sends a SOAP message containing an
invoice XML document to Service A (1). Service A then sends the invoice XML document to Service B (2),
which then writes the invoice document to a database.
The data model used by Service Consumer A to represent the invoice document is based on XML
Schema A. The service contract of Service A is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema B. The service contract for Service B is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema A. The database to which Service B needs to write the invoice record only accepts entire
business documents in Comma Separated Value (CSV) format.
Due to the incompatibility of XML schemas used by the services, the sending of the invoice document
from Service Consumer A through to Service B cannot be accomplished using the services as they
currently exist. Assuming that the Contract Centralization and Logic Centralization patterns are being
applied, what steps can be taken to enable the sending of the invoice document from Service Consumer A
to the database without adding logic that will increase the runtime performance of the service
composition?
A.The Data Model Transformation pattern can be applied so that the invoice document sent by Service
Consumer A is transformed into an invoice document that is compliant with the XML Schema B used by
Service A. The Data Model Transformation pattern can be applied again to ensure that the invoice
document sent by Service A is compliant with XML Schema A used by Service B.
B.The service composition can be redesigned so that Service Consumer A sends the invoice document
directly to Service B. Because Service Consumer A and Service B use XML Schema A, the need for
transformation logic is avoided. This naturally applies the Service Loose Coupling principle because
Service Consumer A is not required to send the invoice document in a format that is compliant with the
database used by Service B.
C.The Standardized Service Contract principle can be applied to the service contract of Service A so that
it is redesigned to use XML Schema A. This would make it capable of receiving the invoice document from
Service Consumer A and sending the invoice document to Service B without the need to further apply the
Data Model Transformation pattern.
D.None of the above.
Answer:C

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NO.1 This final security rule standard addresses encryption of data,
A. Security Management Process
B. Device and Media Controls
C. Information Access Management
D. Audit Controls
E. Transmission Security
Answer: E

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procedures is:
A. ICD-9-CM, Volumes 1 and 2
B. CPT-4
C. CDT
D. ICD-9-CM, Volume 3
E. HCPCS
Answer: D

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NO.3 The Privacy Rule's penalties for unauthorized disclosure:
A. Imposes fines and imprisonment as civil penalties for violations.
B. Limits penalties to covered entities and their business associates.
C. Imposes criminal penalties for noncompliance with standards.
D. Limits imprisonment to a maximum often years.
E. Is $1000 per event of disclosure.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The Privacy Rule interacts with Federal and State laws by:
A. Establishing an orderly hierarchy where HIPAA applies, then other Federal law, then State law.
B. Defining privacy to be a national interest that is best protected by Federal law.
C. Allowing State privacy laws to provide a cumulative effect lower than HIPA4.
D. Mandating that Federal laws preempt State laws regarding privacy.
E. Establishing a 'floor" for privacy protection.
Answer: E

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NO.5 The scope of the Privacy Rule includes:
A. All Employers.
B. The Washington Publishing Company
C. Disclosure of non-identifiable demographics.
D. Oral disclosure of PHI.
E. The prevention of use of de-identified information.
Answer: D

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NO.6 ABC Hospital implements policies and procedures to ensure that all members of
its workforce have appropriate access to electronic protected health information.
These policies and procedures satisfy which HIPAA security standard?
A. Security Management Process
B. Facility Access Control
C. Security Awareness and Training
D. Workforce Security
E. B Security Management Process
Answer: D

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NO.7 Ensuring that physical access to electronic information systems and the facilities in which they
are housed is limited, is addressed under which security rule standard?
A. Security Management Process
B. Transmission Security
C. Person or Entity Authentication
D. Facility Access Controls
E. information Access Management
Answer: D

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NO.8 This transaction type may be used in three ways:
1.Reply to a Health Care Claim Status Request.
2.Unsolicited notification of a health care claim status.
3.Request for additional information about a health care claim.
A. 837.
B. 820.
C. 277.
D. 835.
E. 278.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Implementation features of the Security Management Process include which one of the
following?
A. Power Backup plan
B. Data Backup Plan
C. Security Testing
D. Risk Analysis
E. Authorization and/or Supervision
Answer: D

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NO.10 The Privacy Rule gives patients the following right
A. Access to the psychotherapy notes.
B. Request an amendment to their medical record.
C. Receive a digital certificate.
D. See an accounting of disclosures for which authorization was given.
E. The use of a smart card for accessing their records.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which transaction covers information specific to accidents?
A. Accident Report.
B. First Report of Injury.
C. Health Care Claim.
D. Health Care Claim Payment/Advice.
E. Premium Payment.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Select the correct statement regarding the 834 -Benefit Enrollment and Maintenance
transaction.
A. It can not be used to transfer enrollment information from a plan sponsor to a health care
insurance company or other benefit provider.
B. It can be used by a health insurance company to notify a plan sponsor that it has dropped one of
its members.
C. It can not be used to enroll, update, or dis-enroll employees and dependents in a health plan.
D. A sponsor can be an employer, insurance agency, association or government agency but unions
are excluded from being plan sponsors
E. It can be used in either update or full replacement mode.
Answer: E

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NO.13 The Privacy Rule has broad administrative requirements.
Which one of the following requirements is defined under the Privacy Rule?
A. Designate a security officer.
B. Document termination procedures.
C. Use biometrics to authenticate transactions.
D. Deploy tokens and smart cards to all medical personnel.
E. Verify that business associates treat patient information respectfully.
Answer: E

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NO.14 The transaction number assigned to the Health Care Claim Payment/Advice transaction is:
A. 270
B. 276
C. 834
D. 835
E. 837
Answer: D

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NO.15 An Electronic Medical Record (EMR):
A. Is another name for the Security Ruling
B. Requires the use of biometrics for access to records.
C. Is electronically stored information about an individual's health status and health care.
D. Identifies all hospitals and health care organizations.
E. Requires a P1<1 for the provider and the patient.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Performing a periodic review in response to environmental or operational changes affecting
the security of electronic protected health information is called:
A. Transmission Security
B. Evaluation
C. Audit Control
D. Integrity
E. Security Management Process
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following steps can be taken to protect laptops and data they hold?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Use slot locks with cable to connect the laptop to a stationary object.
B. Keep inventory of all laptops including serial numbers.
C. Harden the operating system.
D. Encrypt all sensitive data.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements about smurf is true?
A. It is an ICMP attack that involves spoofing and flooding.
B. It is a UDP attack that involves spoofing and flooding.
C. It is a denial of service (DoS) attack that leaves TCP ports open.
D. It is an attack with IP fragments that cannot be reassembled.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following attacks involves multiple compromised systems to attack a single target?
A. Brute force attack
B. DDoS attack
C. Dictionary attack
D. Replay attack
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is a remote access protocol that supports encryption?
A. PPP
B. SNMP
C. UDP
D. SLIP
Answer: A

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NO.5 Fill in the blank with the appropriate value.
Service Set Identifiers (SSIDs) are case sensitive text strings that have a maximum length of_______
characters.
A. 32
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following are methods used for authentication?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Smart card
B. Biometrics
C. Username and password
D. Magnetic stripe card
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements about a fiber-optic cable are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. It is immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI).
B. It can transmit undistorted signals over great distances.
C. It has eight wires twisted into four pairs.
D. It uses light pulses for signal transmission.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 Which of the following protocols is used to verify the status of a certificate?
A. CEP
B. HTTP
C. OSPF
D. OCSP
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which methods help you to recover your data in the event of a system or hard disk failure?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Install a RAID system
B. Use data encryption
C. Install and use a tape backup unit
D. Install UPS systems on all important devices
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Which of the following is the best way of protecting important data against virus attack?
A. Updating the anti-virus software regularly.
B. Taking daily backup of data.
C. Using strong passwords to log on to the network.
D. Implementing a firewall.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following are used to suppress paper or wood fires?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Water
B. Kerosene
C. CO2
D. Soda acid
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 Which of the following types of attacks slows down or stops a server by overloading it with requests?
A. Vulnerability attack
B. Impersonation attack
C. Network attack
D. DoS attack
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following is a technique used to attack an Ethernet wired or wireless network?
A. DNS poisoning
B. Keystroke logging
C. Mail bombing
D. ARP poisoning
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following refers to encrypted text.?
A. Plaintext
B. Cookies
C. Hypertext
D. Ciphertext
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following statements about Switched Multimegabit Data Service (SMDS) are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a logical connection between two devices.
B. It uses fixed-length (53-byte) packets to transmit information.
C. It supports speeds of 1.544 Mbps over Digital Signal level 1 (DS-1) transmission facilities.
D. It is a high-speed WAN networking technology used for communication over public data networks
Answer: C,D

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NO.16 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources
that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?
A. Role-Based Access Control
B. Discretionary Access Control
C. Mandatory Access Control
D. Policy Access Control
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following statements about Digest authentication are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. In Digest authentication, passwords are sent across a network as clear text, rather than as a has value.
B. Digest authentication is used by wireless LANs, which follow the IEEE 802.11 standard.
C. In Digest authentication, passwords are sent across a network as a hash value, rather than as clear
text.
D. Digest authentication is a more secure authentication method as compared to Basic authentication.
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 Which of the following protocols is used to establish a secure TELNET session over TCP/IP?
A. SSL
B. PGP
C. IPSEC
D. SSH
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following terms refers to the protection of data against unauthorized access?
A. Auditing
B. Recovery
C. Confidentiality
D. Integrity
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following statements about DMZ are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is an anti-virus software that scans the incoming traffic on an internal network.
B. It is the boundary between the Internet and a private network.
C. It contains company resources that are available on the Internet, such as Web servers and FTP
servers.
D. It contains an access control list (ACL).
Answer: B,C

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NO.21 Which of the following statements about role-based access control (RBAC) model is true?
A. In this model, a user can access resources according to his role in the organization.
B. In this model, the permissions are uniquely assigned to each user account.
C. In this model, the same permission is assigned to each user account.
D. In this model, the users can access resources according to their seniority.
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which of the following are the benefits of information classification for an organization?
A. It helps identify which information is the most sensitive or vital to an organization.
B. It ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes.
C. It helps identify which protections apply to which information.
D. It helps reduce the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).
Answer: A,C

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NO.23 Which of the following statements about the bridge are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It filters traffic based on IP addresses.
B. It forwards broadcast packets.
C. It assigns a different network address per port.
D. It filters traffic based on MAC addresses.
Answer: B,D

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NO.24 Sam works as a Web Developer for McRobert Inc. He wants to control the way in which a Web
browser receives information and downloads content from Web sites. Which of the following browser
settings will Sam use to accomplish this?
A. Proxy server
B. Security
C. Cookies
D. Certificate
Answer: B

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NO.25 When no anomaly is present in an Intrusion Detection, but an alarm is generated, the response is known
as __________.
A. False positive
B. False negative
C. True negative
D. True positive
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which of the following is the most secure authentication method?
A. Certificate-based authentication
B. Basic authentication
C. Digest authentication
D. Integrated Windows authentication
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which of the following heights of fence deters only casual trespassers?
A. 3 to 4 feet
B. 2 to 2.5 feet
C. 8 feet
D. 6 to 7 feet
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which of the following policies is set by a network administrator to allow users to keep their emails and
documents for a fixed period of time?
A. Retention policy
B. Password policy
C. Audit policy
D. Backup policy
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which of the following functions are performed by a firewall?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It hides vulnerable computers that are exposed to the Internet.
B. It logs traffic to and from the private network.
C. It enhances security through various methods, including packet filtering, circuit-level filtering, and
application filtering.
D. It blocks unwanted traffic.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.30 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a network that consists of 200
client computers and ten database servers. One morning, you find that a hacker is accessing
unauthorized data on a database server on the network. Which of the following actions will you take to
preserve the evidences?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Prevent a forensics experts team from entering the server room.
B. Preserve the log files for a forensics expert.
C. Prevent the company employees from entering the server room.
D. Detach the network cable from the database server.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.1 Which of the following phases of the PDCA model is the monitoring and controlling phase of the
Information Security Management System (ISMS)?
A. Check
B. Plan
C. Do
D. Act
Answer: A

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NO.2 Mark works as a System Administrator for uCertify Inc. He is responsible for securing the network of
the organization. He is configuring some of the advanced features of the Windows firewall so that he can
block the client machine from responding to pings. Which of the following advanced setting types should
Mark change for accomplishing the task?
A. ICMP
B. SNMP
C. UDP
D. SMTP
Answer: A

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NO.3 You work as the Human Resource Manager for uCertify Inc. You need to recruit some candidates for
the marketing department of the organization. Which of the following should be defined to the new
employees of the organization before they have joined?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Marketing tips and tricks
B. Organization's network topology
C. Job roles
D. Organization's security policy
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 You work as a Security Administrator for uCertify Inc. You have been assigned the task to verify the
identity of the employees recruited in your organization. Which of the following components of security
deals with an employee's verification in the organization?
A. Network Security
B. Physical security
C. Access security
D. Human resource security
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is the designing phase of the ISMS?
A. Check
B. Plan
C. Act
D. Do
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is a fast-emerging global sector that advises individuals and corporations on
how to apply the highest ethical standards to every aspect of their business?
A. Service Capacity Management (SCM)
B. Business Capacity Management (BCM)
C. Resource Capacity Management (RCM)
D. Integrity Management Consulting
Answer: D

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NO.7 You work as an Information Security Manager for uCertify Inc. You need to make the
documentation on change management. What are the advantages of change management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Improved productivity of users due to more stable and better IT services
B. Improved IT personnel productivity, since there is a reduced number of urgent changes and a back-out
of erroneous changes
C. Improved adverse impact of changes on the quality of IT services
D. Increased ability to absorb frequent changes without making an unstable IT environment
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 Which of the following are the basics of Business Continuity Management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Implementation of a risk assessment technique to identify the causes and consequences of failures
B. Regular checking of business continuity plans
C. Identification of authentication techniques according to the requirements
D. Identification of human resources according to the requirements
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.9 The disciplined and structured process, that integrates information security and risk management
activities into the System Development Life Cycle, is provided by the risk management framework.
Choose the appropriate RMF steps.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Mark works as a Network Security Administrator for uCertify Inc. An employee of the organization
comes to Mark and tells him that a few months ago, the employee had filled an online bank form due to
some account related work. Today, when again visiting the site, the employee finds that some of his
personal information is still being displayed in the webpage. Which of the following types of cookies
should be disabled by Mark to resolve the issue?
A. Session
B. Temporary
C. Secure
D. Persistent
Answer: D

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NO.11 You work as an Information Security Manager for uCertify Inc. You are working on communication and
organization management. You need to create the documentation on change management.
Which of the following are the main objectives of change management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Minimal disruption of services
B. Reduction of inventory in accordance with revenue
C. Economic utilization of resources involved in the change
D. Reduction in back-out activities
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.12 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. The organization has constructed a cafeteria for
their employees and you are responsible to select the access control method for the cafeteria.
There are a few conditions for giving access to the employees, which are as follows:
1. Top level management can get access any time.
2. Staff members can get access during the specified hours.
3. Guests can get access only in working hours.
Which of the following access control methods is suitable to accomplish the task?
A. Discretionary access control
B. Lattice-based access control
C. Attribute-based access control
D. Rule-based access control
Answer: D

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NO.13 Mark works as a Network Security Administrator for uCertify Inc. He has been assigned the task of
installing a MySQL server. Mark wants to monitor only the data that is directed to or originating from the
server and he also wants to monitor running processes, file system access and integrity, and user logins
for identifying malicious activities. Which of the following intrusion detection techniques will Mark use to
accomplish the task?
A. Network-based IDS
B. Signature-based IDS
C. Anomaly-based IDS
D. Host-based IDS
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following statements are true about security risks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. These are considered as an indicator of threats coupled with vulnerability.
B. These can be removed completely by taking proper actions.
C. These can be mitigated by reviewing and taking responsible actions based on possible risks.
D. These can be analyzed and measured by the risk analysis process.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.15 Qualitative risk analysis includes judgment, intuition, and experience. Which of the following methods
are used to perform qualitative risk analysis?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Egress filtering
B. Checklists
C. Delphi technique
D. Brainstorming
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.16 You work as an Information Security Officer for uCertify Inc. You need to create an asset management
plan differentiating fixed assets from inventory items. How will you differentiate assets from inventory
items?
A. Inventory items are sold.
B. Assets are temporary usually.
C. Inventory items are permanent.
D. Assets cannot be used.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following is a Restrict Anonymous registry value that allows users with explicit
anonymous permissions?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 0
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following are the uses of cryptography as defined in a policy document?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Backup
B. Control of keys
C. Applications supporting cryptography
D. Recovery
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.19 Which of the following is used for secure financial transactions over the Internet?
A. ATM
B. VPN
C. SSL
D. SET
Answer: D

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NO.20 Mark works as an Office Assistant for uCertify Inc. He is responsible for managing office documents.
Today, after opening a word document, Mark noticed that the other opened documents are closed
suddenly. After reopening those documents, Mark found some modifications in the documents. He
contacted his Security Administrator and came to know that there is a virus program installed in the
operating system. Which of the following types of virus has attacked the operating system?
A. Data file
B. Macro
C. Polymorphic
D. Boot sector
Answer: A

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NO.21 Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) represents an organization's loss from a single threat. Which of the
following formulas best describes the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)?
A. SLE = Asset Value (AV) * Exposure Factor (EF)
B. SLE = Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) * Exposure Factor (EF)
C. SLE = Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
D. SLE = Asset Value (AV) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
Answer: A

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NO.22 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
________ is a powerful and low-interaction open source honeypot.
Answer: Honeyd

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NO.23 Which of the following controls are administrative in nature?
A. Directive controls
B. Recovery controls
C. Preventive controls
D. Detective controls
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which of the following should be considered while calculating the costs of the outage?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Sales aspect of the business
B. Cost of low productivity
C. Innovations in electronic funds transfer
D. Cost of lost income from missed sales
Answer: B,D

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NO.25 You work as an Information Security Manager for uCertify Inc. You are working on the
documentation of control A.10.1.1. What is the purpose of control A.10.1.1.?
A. It is concerned with the documentation of the human resource security to make recruitments clear to
the organization.
B. It is concerned with the documentation of the supply chain management.
C. It is concerned with the documentation of operating procedures to ensure the correct and secure use of
information processing facilities.
D. It is concerned with the documentation of the disaster recovery management to ensure proper backup
technologies.
Answer: C

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NO.26 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
_________accord describes the minimum regulatory capital to be allocated by each bank based on its
risk profile of assets.
Answer: Basel ll

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NO.27 Which of the following are the exceptions of the Data Protection Act?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Section 36 - Domestic purposes
B. Section 28 - National security
C. Section 55 - Unlawful obtaining of personal data
D. Section 29 - Crime and taxation
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.28 Which of the following administrative policy controls is usually associated with government
classifications of materials and the clearances of individuals to access those materials?
A. Separation of Duties
B. Due Care
C. Acceptable Use
D. Need to Know
Answer: D

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NO.29 A project plan includes the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and cost estimates. Which of the following
are the parts of a project plan?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Risk identification
B. Security Threat
C. Project schedule
D. Team members list
E. Risk analysis
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.30 Rick works as a Computer Forensic Investigator for BlueWells Inc. He has been informed that some
confidential information is being leaked out by an employee of the company. Rick suspects that someone
is sending the information through email. He checks the emails sent by some employees to other
networks. Rick finds out that Sam, an employee of the Sales department, is continuously sending text files
that contain special symbols, graphics, and signs. Rick suspects that Sam is using the Steganography
technique to send data in a disguised form. Which of the following techniques is Sam using?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Linguistic steganography
B. Text Semagrams
C. Technical steganography
D. Perceptual masking
Answer: A,B

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