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Exam Code: CAT-040
Exam Name: CA (CA eHealth r6 Administrator Exam )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 In Report Center, which users are considered super users.?
A. Server Administrators
B. Report Administrators
C. System Administrators
D. Directory Administrators
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which command do you use to open the OneClick for eHealth console only?
A. ehealth -h
B. ehealth -oce
C. ehealth -once
D. ehealth -motif
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which report type can you drill down to from an At-a-Glance report?
A. TopN
B. Trend
C. Health
D. Service Level
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement about using Oracle with CA eHealth is TRUE?
A. CA eHealth supports the use of a remote Oracle database.
B. All versions of CA eHealth now use the Oracle double-byte software.
C. A database can be on a mapped or mounted drive with high-speed connectivity.
D. You can use Oracle or other after-market tools to back up the CA eHealth database.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Before you can run custom Health and Service Level Reports, you need to make sure that: (Choose
four)
A. Report log files have been updated.
B. Service Profiles have been configured.
C. Groups and Groups Lists arepopulated.
D. User Permissions have been configured.
E. The Database is set up and is operational.
F. Correct report definitions have been created.
Answer: B,C,D,E

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Exam Code: CAT-200
Exam Name: CA (CA Service Desk Manager r12 Administrator Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What are the components of a notification rule? (Choose three)
A. Services
B. Contacts
C. Constraints
D. Condition macro
E. Message template
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 For the Level 2 Analyst role, which additional My Queue items can you view on the Scoreboard?
(Choose two)
A. My Incidents
B. My Requests
C. My Problems
D. My Change Orders
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Each CA Service Desk role record MUST be configured with:
A. One form group
B. One service type
C. Three work shifts,
D. Two data partitions.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Level 1 CA Service Desk Analysts can use the CA Service Desk Quick Profile page to:
A. Create templates
B. Search knowledge documents for relevant information
C. Search for information about the end user during a support call.
D. Access the end user's computer and resolve the problem during the call.
Answer: C

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NO.5 On which tab can you find Incidents related to a Problem?
A. Event Log tab
B. Knowledge tab
C. Attachments tab
D. Attached Incidents tab
Answer: D

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Exam Code: RCDD
Exam Name: BICSI (Registered Communications Distribution Designer )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 106 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 ________is the total opposition (resistance, capacitance, and inductance) a circuit,
cable, or component offers to the flow of alternating current.
A unit of measure expressed in ohms.
Answer: Impedance

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NO.2 Which of the following is the Cable Modem (Cable-TV) Working Group?
A. IEEE 802.9
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.14
D. IEEE 802.3
Answer: C

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NO.3 A "wye" is a power system in which only one point is grounded.
A. False
B. True
Answer: B

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NO.4 Between the late 60's and until 1984, what was the service that was to help architects
and engineers better design and implement pathways and spaces in commercial
buildings for telephone communications?
A. BICS
B. AT&T
C. CREDFACS
D. GTE
E. BICSI
Answer: A

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NO.5 Distribution cable is that part of the loop that connects the customer location to the
customer feeder cable.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.6 For design purposes, which of the following would be the typical size range of a
4-pair 100 ohm UTP or ScTP (FTP) cable?
A. .50 in to .75 in
B. .14 in to .25 in
C. .31 in to .43 in
D. .11 in to .18 in
Answer: B

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NO.7 NRZ is the acronym for which of the following?
A. Non-return to zero.
B. Nominal return zone.
C. Network registration zone.
D. Normal return zone.
Answer: A

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NO.8 In what year was the TIA formed?
A. 1985
B. 1965
C. 1958
D. 1956
Answer: A

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NO.9 ANSI/TIA/EIA-758 is the standard for which of the following?
A. Customer-Owned Outside Plant Telecommunications Cabling Standard.
B. Technical Specifications for 100 Ohm Screened Twisted Pair Cabling.
C. Propagation Delay and Delay Skew Specifications for 100-Ohm 4-Pair Cable.
D. Residential Telecommunications Cabling Standard.
Answer: A

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NO.10 The CEC is revised every four years.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.11 The inadvertent transposition of two conductors of separate pairs is called what?
A. Twisted pair
B. Transposed pairs
C. Reversed pair
D. Split pair
Answer: D

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NO.12 A product is listed after it successfully completes a series of which of the following
test?
A. Mechanical
B. Regulatory codes
C. Electrical
D. Thermal
Answer: ACD

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NO.13 Which of the following is the Standard for the Installation of Lightning Protection
Systems?
A. NFPA-780
B. NFPA-70
C. NFPA-72
D. NFPA-75
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the standard floor space allocation used in an office environment for one
individual work area?
A. 100 square feet.
B. 50 square feet.
C. 150 square feet.
D. 75 square feet.
Answer: A

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NO.15 The ability of a device, equipment, or system to perform without degradation in the
presence of an electromagnetic disturbance is called what?
A. Electromagnetic immunity.
B. Electromagnetic compatibility.
C. Electromagnetic induction.
D. Electromagnetic disturbance.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following should be used as a guideline for estimating space
requirements of optical fiber and coaxial cable cross-connections in a TR?
A. 3 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
B. 2 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
C. 4 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
D. 1 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following is the international standard for premises cabling?
A. ISO/IEC 18010
B. ISO/IEC 11801
Answer: B

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NO.18 In buildings that will contain the telecommunications systems, NEC requirements
address the adequate electrical environment for reliable and error-free operation of
the installed equipment.
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

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NO.19 In an "underfloor duct system", the distribution ducts carry cables from the TR to
the feeder ducts.
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following is the standard for "Recommended Practice for Installation
Design and Installation of Valve Regulated Lead-Acid Storage Batteries for
Stationary Applications"?
A. ANSI/IEEE C62.41
B. ANSI/IEEE C62.45
C. ANSI/IEEE P1188-1996
D. ANSI/IEEE P1187-1996
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 9L0-606
Exam Name: Apple (System Administration of Mac OS)
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Total Q&A: 81 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What does the -LoginHook option do in the code sample below from /etc/ttys? console
"/System/Library/CoreServices/loginwindow.app/loginwindow -PowerOffDisabled YES
-LoginHook /Users/Admin/Scripts/mailLoginInfo" vt100 on secure
window=/System/Library/CoreServices/WindowServer
A.Disables Shutdown and Restart buttons for non-administrators
B.Invokes the script mailLoginInfo when a user logs in to the computer
C.Sets the terminal type to vt100 for each user who logs in to the computer
D.Starts the main windowing system, WindowServer, in a secure Console window on startup
Correct:B

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NO.2 Your umask is set to 026. You use touch from the command line to create a new file. What are the
permissions on the new file?
A.600
B.640
C.644
D.751
E.755
Correct:B

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NO.3 What three (3) pieces of information must be specified in the Active Directory plug-in
configuration in order for Mac OS X v10.3 to bind to Active Directory via the Active Directory
plug-in? (Choose THREE.)
A.IP address
B.Computer ID
C.Ethernet Address
D.Active Directory Tree
E.Active Directory Forest
F.Active Directory Domain
G.Active Directory Mount Point
Correct:B E F

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NO.4 Which command will identify all files in the hierarchy rooted at the current directory that have
either the setuid or the setgid bit set?
A.find . -perm +2000
B.find . -perm +3000
C.find . -perm +4000
D.find . -perm +5000
E.find . -perm +6000
F.find . -perm +7000
Correct:E

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NO.5 Which three (3) statements about encrypted disk images are true? (Choose THREE.)
A.Encrypted disk images are read-only.
B.Encrypted disk images can be re-sized.
C.Encrypted disk images use AES 128-bit encryption.
D.The maximum size of encrypted disk images is 1 GB.
E.Mac OS X does not leave any Cleartext copies of the contents of files opened from encrypted disk
images.
F.A tcpdump of network traffic relating to mounting an encrypted disk image reveals the disk image data in
unencrypted form.
Correct:B C E

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NO.6 Which is a limitation of using lookupd -d?
A.The daemon, lookupd, is interactive.
B.The results of the lookupd -d command are from a new instance of lookupd.
C.The lookupd -d command is used to find information on DNS resolution.
D.If configured to use DSAgent, the lookupd -d command will get the same results as DirectoryService.
Correct:B

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NO.7 Which two (2) statements about passwords for local user accounts in Mac OS X v10.3 are true?
(Choose TWO.)
A.DirectoryService is the authoritative authentication agent for crypt and shadow passwords.
B.A crypt password can be 32 bytes in length; a shadow password has no length limitation.
C.A crypt password is stored as a hash in the user account; a shadow password is stored as several
hashes in a file.
D.A crypt password is accessible by anyone using the computer; a shadow password is only accessible
by the System Administrator (root).
E.Mac OS X v10.3 creates crypt passwords by default; shadow passwords are created for a user account
when the option is specified in System Preferences.
Correct:C D

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NO.8 If a router on the Internet receives a packet destined for a private (non-routable) IP address, the
router will ________.
A.drop the packet
B.return the packet
C.broadcast the packet
D.forward the packet to the private network gateway
Correct:A

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NO.9 Identify a disadvantage of supplementing Active Directory with directory services running on
Mac OS X Server.
A.A modification to the Active Directory schema is necessary.
B.The ability to manage individual user accounts in Mac OS X is sacrificed.
C.You can no longer manage directory services with tools provided by Apple.
D.A configured directory on Mac OS X Server must be added to the Active Directory domain.
Correct:B

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Exam Code: 9L0-827
Exam Name: Apple (Final Cut Pro 7 End User Exam Level One)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 HOTSPOT
In the image below, click the Solo button for A3.
Answer: Pending

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NO.2 Which overlay displayed below indicates the Canvas playhead is parked at the end of a sequence?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which tool would perform the Before/After edit scenario shown above with the least
amount of clicks or keystrokes?
A. Ripple
B. Roll
C. Slide
D. Slip
Answer: A

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NO.4 HOTSPOT
In the image below, click the icon that allows you to make a Lift edit, as shown above.
Answer: Pending

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NO.5 Which keyboard shortcut allows you to view the entire sequence within the Timeline
Window.?
A. Command-Z
B. Control-Z
C. Option-Z
D. Shift-Z
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which tool would perform the Before/After edit scenario shown above with the least
amount of clicks or keystrokes? (NOTE: Two edit points changed simultaneously.)
A. Ripple
B. Roll
C. Slide
D. Slip
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which reconnect option allows you to manually navigate to a source media file?
A. Batch
B. Forget
C. Locate
D. Search
Answer: C

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NO.8 HOTSPOT
In the image below, click the icon that allows you to display Title Safe.
Answer: Pending

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NO.9 HOTSPOT
In the Log and Transfer window below, click the icon that allows you to choose the
Apple ProRes format for converting AVCHD footage.
Answer: Pending

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NO.10 Which actions allow you to open the Edit Marker dialog for a sequence marker?
(Select all that apply)
A. Command-double-click the marker.
B. With the playhead on the marker, press M.
C. Control-click the marker.
Answer: A, B

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Exam Code: 9L0-314
Exam Name: Apple (Apple Hardware Recertification exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 124 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 The liquid cooling system inside a Power Mac G5 (Quad Late 2005) has failed, causing a
coolant
leak while the computer is on. According to Apple references, what should you do FIRST?
A. Use a patch kit to re-seal the leak.
B. Unplug the computer immediately.
C. Drain and refill the liquid cooling system.
D. Put the computer to sleep until the liquid dries.
E. Let the computer run overnight to evaporate any spilled liquid.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What component of a Mac mini (Early 2009) logic board requires use of an anti-static foam
support to avoid damage?
A. EMI clips
B. Video card
C. Large heat sink
D. Battery connector
Answer: A

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NO.3 The purpose of Apple's business conduct helpline is to _____.
A. ask technical support questions
B. report damaged service parts to Apple
C. report normal business operational details to Apple
D. raise a potential business conduct or ethics issue as it relates to Apple
Answer: D

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6. You are troubleshooting an iMac (Early 2008) that does not power on. You notice that all
diagnostic LEDs remain off when a known-good power cord is connected to the iMac and to a
known-good power outlet. What is most likely the cause of these symptoms?
A. Faulty power supply
B. Faulty optical drive
C. Faulty LCD panel
D. Faulty video card
Answer: A

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7. MacBook Air comes with a _____ MagSafe power adapter.
A. 45 Watt
B. 60 Watt
C. 65 Watt
D. 80 Watt
E. 85 Watt
Answer: A

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NO.4 Why do you need to take precautions when disposing of CRT displays? SELECT TWO
A. CRT displays may contain toxic gases.
B. CRT displays may present a fire hazard.
C. CRT displays may implode if mishandled.
D. CRT displays may present a radiation hazard.
E. CRT displays may contain hazardous materials.
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 You are troubleshooting an eMac that has no image on its built-in display. You have already
checked user controls and reset PRAM, but the issue persists. When you connect an external
display to the eMac's VGA output port and restart the eMac, you see a proper image on the
external display. Which of the following service modules would most likely be the cause of these
symptoms?
A. Display Analog Assembly
B. Power Supply Assembly
C. Logic Board
D. Hard drive
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 4A0-100
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Scalable IP Networks)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which of the following statements best describes ARPANET?
A.ARPANET was an early packet switched network initially connecting 4 sites (Stanford, UC Santa
Barbara, UCLA, and U of Utah).
B.The mission of ARPANET was to connect packet switched networks and other diverse networks,
making an international network of networks.
C.ARPANET connected sites spread around the Hawaiian Islands to a central time-sharing computer on
the University of Hawaii campus.
D.ARPANET was based on the use of TCP/IP to interconnect diverse systems.
ANSWER: a

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NO.2 The IANA is responsible for:
A.Intra-city ISP traffic.
B.Allocation of the global IP address space.
C.Allocating IP addresses for residential customer traffic.
D.Allocating North American IP addresses .
ANSWER: b

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NO.3 Which of the following are protocols belonging to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose two)
A.OSPF
B.BGP
C.X.500
D.IS-IS
E.Ethernet
ANSWER: de

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NO.4 What is the name for an organization that provides Internet services to its customers
A.A large corporation.
B.An ISP.
C.A home based business.
D.A content provider.
ANSWER: b

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NO.5 You are configuring your Alcatel-Lucent 7750SR Service Router from the Command Line Interface
(CLI), and after entering a lengthy command, wish to return directly to the ROOT context. Which control
command allows you to do this quickly?
A.Ctrl-z
B.Ctrl-c
C.Esc
D.Shift-Page Down
ANSWER: a

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NO.6 Which statement best describes how the internet evolved?
A.The internet emerged in the commercial world in the 1980s following the US militarys adoption of
TCP/IP in 1983.
B.The internet evolved from a military to a research to a commercial based network.
C.The internet remained primarily a research based network and was only commercially adopted in 2000
when the world wide web was conceived.
D.Internet service providers provided the services necessary for military based networks to evolve into
research and education based networks.
ANSWER: b

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NO.7 What kind of information can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client receive?
A.Details of the configuration settings of each router on the network.
B.A list of other DHCP clients.
C.IP addresses and their lease times.
D.Server time information
ANSWER: c

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NO.8 which of the following is the best description of well known ports?
A.Well known ports apply to routers only and are used for communication and control traffic. Well known
port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.
B.Well known ports are used by TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1024 to 65535 and
are assigned by IANA.
C.Well known port numbers are used by both TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1 to
1023 and are assigned by IANA.
D.Well known ports numbers are used by TCP only. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and
can have any value.
ANSWER: c

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NO.9 How do protocols such as ATM and Frame-Relay support differentiating multiple customers or traffic
types on the same physical wire?
A.ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use Virtual Circuits to create logical
separation of traffic.
B.ATM and Frame-Relay are point-to-point protocols and do not support different customers or traffic type
on the same physical wire.
C.ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use VLAN's to create logical separation of
traffic.
D.ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use IP Header information to create logical
separation of traffic.
ANSWER: a

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NO.10 Which network was created to replace ARPANET?
A.INWG
B.ALOHANET
C.IETF
D.NSFNET
ANSWER: d

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NO.11 Which organization eventually became the standards body for IP and related protocols?
A.IEEE
B.IETF
C.NSFNET
D.ITU-T
E.APNIC
ANSWER: b

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NO.12 Choose two true statements that characterize Link State Routing
A.Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.
B.Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.
C.Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.
D.Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.
ANSWER: cd

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NO.13 To transmit its segments of data across the network TCP uses the services of which layer
A.Application Layer.
B.Transport Layer.
C.IP Layer.
D.Data Link Layer
ANSWER: c

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NO.14 Which organization first considered cross-platform networking support to be a necessity?
A.IBM.
B.US Military.
C.Alcatel-Lucent.
D.NASA.
E.Bell Labs
ANSWER: b

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NO.15 Which of the following is a feature of Layer 3?
A.Provides an universal addressing scheme
B.Ensures data is delivered across the Layer 2 network.
C.Provides reliable data transfers.
D.Provides a physical interface to the network.
ANSWER: a

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NO.16 The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host addresses
will you obtain with this mask?
A.4 subnets, 64 hosts
B.64 subnets, 4 hosts
C.4 subnets, 62 hosts
D.64 subnets, 2 hosts
E.6 subnets, 30 hosts
ANSWER: c

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NO.17 Which of the following best describes a repeater?
A.A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate or amplify any signals.
B.A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports, but does not do any Layer 2 analysis of the
data.
C.A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on
which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
D.A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on
which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
E.A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address, makes a decision on
which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
ANSWER: b

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NO.18 Kahn solved the problem of interconnecting different networks using different protocols by pioneering
a new protocol called TCP that was capable of:
A.Secure transmission of information.
B.Enforcing a constant packet size to avoid discards.
C.Allowing remote logins.
D.Providing host to host connectivity with global addressing.
ANSWER: d

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NO.19 Which of the following is an important advantage of protocol layering? (Choose two)
A.Controls distribution of IP addresses.
B.Simplifies protocol functionality.
C.Isolates changes in lower layers from upper layers.
D.Increases protocol operational efficiencies.
E.Layering adds to the fragmentation of the data
ANSWER: cd

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NO.20 Which statement accurately explains the purpose of the TCP protocol and what it provides?
A.The primary purpose of TCP is to provide reliable communications between application services.
B.The primary purpose of TCP is to provide unreliable communications between application services
C.The primary purpose of TCP is to provide IP routing between application services.
D.The primary purpose of TCP is to define the correct format for the application layer such as JPEG or
HTML.
ANSWER: a

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Exam Code: 3I0-010
Exam Name: ACI (ACI - Operations Certificate)
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Total Q&A: 342 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Your money market dealer has lent GBP 5,000,000.00 at 4 3/4% for 6 months (183 days). How much
must the counterparty pay back to you in capital plus accrued interest at maturity?
A. GBP 5,117,123.29
B. GBP 5,119,075.00
C. GBP 5,119,075.34
D. GBP 5,120,729.17
Answer: C

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NO.2 What does "modified following business day convention" mean?
A. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the following business day, unless that day extends into
the next month, in which case it is dated the preceding business day
B. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the following business day
C. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the preceding business day
D. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the next business day that corresponds to the same
numerical day of the month as the preceding payment
Answer: A

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NO.3 Physical securities reconciliation software packages are based on:
A. SWIFT message type 5XX
B. SWIFT message type 2XX
C. SWIFT message type 320
D. SWIFT message type 400
Answer: A

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NO.4 How many characters does a BIC have? (Under ISO standard 9362, 2nd edition)
A. 6 or 9 characters
B. 9 or 12 characters
C. 7 or 10 characters
D. 8 or 11 characters
Answer: D

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NO.5 Today is the fixing date for 6x9 FRA that you sold at 5.50% and for which the FRABBA LIBOR is now
6.00%. Which of the following is true?
A. You will pay a cash settlement to the counterparty
B. You will receive the cash settlement
C. There is no cash settlement pending
D. There is insufficient information to make a determination
Answer: A

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NO.6 When should discrepancies between front-office and back-office systems be resolved?
A. by the end of the trading day
B. on the next business day
C. on the value date
D. as soon as they become apparent
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a nostro bank account?
A. an account held with another bank
B. an account another bank holds with you
C. a trust account
D. a suspense account
Answer: A

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NO.8 If the EUR/USD is quoted to you as 1.1050-53, what does this price represent?
A. EUR per USD
B. USD per EUR
C. the interest rate differential between EUR and USD
D. the fact that one USD is worth more than one EUR
Answer: B

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NO.9 In FX swaps, the rate of the spot leg
A. may be freely chosen by the quoting party as long as both parties agree on it
B. must always be fixed immediately at the current mid rate, to reflect the rate at the time the deal was
made
C. should be fixed immediately within the current spread, to reflect current rates at the time the
transaction was made
D. should always be fixed off the current spread in order not to be mistaken for a spot FX transaction
Answer: C

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NO.10 Under normal circumstances, which of the following is a non-negotiable instrument?
A. a Medium Term Note
B. a Bankers Acceptance
C. a Money Market Deposit
D. a Treasury Bill
Answer: C

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NO.11 A collateral pool can be defined as:
A. assets lent by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to enable
them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
B. liabilities owned by members of a payments system collectively available to the system as collateral to
enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
C. assets owned by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to
enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
D. assets swapped by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to
enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is a feature of multilateral netting?
A. there are no more than two participants involved in the netting process
B. there is no redistribution of default risk
C. there is a central clearing house
D. no legal entity is required
Answer: C

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NO.13 The notional amount in an interest rate swap is:
A. the sum of all the fixed and floating rate payments
B. the net difference between fixed and floating rate payments
C. the principal amount on which floating and fixed interest payments is calculated
D. the amount at which the two counterparties can close-out their transaction
Answer: C

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NO.14 You have two nostro accounts in USD, one account is long USD 5 million and the other is short USD 5
million. What action should be taken to reconcile the accounts?
A. No action is required. The credit interest earned on the credit balance will offset the debit interest
incurred on the short balance
B. You should borrow USD 5 million to cover the short balance and leave the long balance as it is
C. You should lend the surplus USD 5 million in order to overdraft charges on the short balance with the
interest earned on the loan
D. You should instruct the bank with the long balance to pay USD 5 million to the other bank
Answer: D

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NO.15 The prompt sending and checking of confirmations is considered a best practice when dealing in:
A. amounts higher than USD 10,000,000.00 or the equivalent in other currencies
B. amounts higher than USD 1,000,000.00 or the equivalent in other currencies
C. any amount unless dealt via a broker
D. any amount by any counterparty
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following is the main objective of position-keeping?
A. measuring market exposure
B. defining capital adequacy
C. evaluating country risk
D. monitoring counterparty credit risk
Answer: A

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NO.17 The maximum term for which a London Certificate of Deposit may be issued is:
A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 10 years
Answer: C

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NO.18 You have just opened a position in EUR/USD that you run overnight. What risk is present?
A. settlement, counterparty and equity risk
B. only counterparty risk
C. only currency and interest rate risks
D. settlement, counterparty and market risk
Answer: D

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NO.19 What type of documentation is recommended for repos in the international markets?
A. An Overseas Securities Lenders Agreement
B. A ISDA Master Repurchase Agreement
C. A SIFMA/ICMA Global Master Repurchase Agreement
D. An International Securities Lenders Agreement
Answer: C

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NO.20 The control failings involving Barings and Daiwa highlight the critical importance of what operational risk
management practice?
A. the taping of conversations between counterparties
B. model signing-off and implementation controls
C. the separation between front/back office duties
D. the existence of contingency plans
Answer: C

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A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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A. SICs only
B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?
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B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet
Answer: A

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NO.1 How many times will "HELLO" be printed?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
for(int i=?1; i<=10; i++)
{
if(i < 5)
continue;
else
break;
cout<<"HELLO";
}
return 0;
}
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0
D. 20
Answer: C

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NO.2 What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int getValue();
int main()
{
const int x = getValue();
cout<<x;
return 0;
}
int getValue()
{
return 5;
}
A. It will print 0
B. The code will not compile.
C. It will print 5
D. It will print garbage value
Answer: C

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NO.3 What happens if you try to compile and run this program?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main (int argc, const char * argv[])
{
print("Test");
return 0;
}
void print(int c[])
{
cout<<c;
}
A. It prints: Test
B. Compilation fails
C. Program terminates abnormally
D. None of these
Answer: B

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NO.1 You need to move a file titled “weblogs” into HDFS. When you try to copy the file, you can’t.
You
know you have ample space on your DataNodes. Which action should you take to relieve this
situation and store more files in HDFS?
A. Increase the block size on all current files in HDFS.
B. Increase the block size on your remaining files.
C. Decrease the block size on your remaining files.
D. Increase the amount of memory for the NameNode.
E. Increase the number of disks (or size) for the NameNode.
F. Decrease the block size on all current files in HDFS.
Answer: C

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10. Indentify which best defines a SequenceFile?
A. A SequenceFile contains a binary encoding of an arbitrary number of homogeneous Writable
objects
B. A SequenceFile contains a binary encoding of an arbitrary number of heterogeneous Writable
objects
C. A SequenceFile contains a binary encoding of an arbitrary number of WritableComparable
objects, in sorted order.
D. A SequenceFile contains a binary encoding of an arbitrary number key-value pairs. Each key
must be the same type. Each value must be the same type.
Answer: D

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NO.2 For each intermediate key, each reducer task can emit:
A. As many final key-value pairs as desired. There are no restrictions on the types of those keyvalue
pairs (i.e., they can be heterogeneous).
B. As many final key-value pairs as desired, but they must have the same type as the intermediate
key-value pairs.
C. As many final key-value pairs as desired, as long as all the keys have the same type and all the
values have the same type.
D. One final key-value pair per value associated with the key; no restrictions on the type.
E. One final key-value pair per key; no restrictions on the type.
Answer: E

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NO.3 In a large MapReduce job with m mappers and n reducers, how many distinct copy operations
will
there be in the sort/shuffle phase?
A. mXn (i.e., m multiplied by n)
B. n
C. m
D. m+n (i.e., m plus n)
E. E.mn(i.e., m to the power of n)
Answer: A

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NO.4 In a MapReduce job with 500 map tasks, how many map task attempts will there be?
A. It depends on the number of reduces in the job.
B. Between 500 and 1000.
C. At most 500.
D. At least 500.
E. Exactly 500.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Your cluster’s HDFS block size in 64MB. You have directory containing 100 plain text files, each
of
which is 100MB in size. The InputFormat for your job is TextInputFormat. Determine how many
Mappers will run?
A. 64
B. 100
C. 200
D. 640
Answer: C

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NO.6 When is the earliest point at which the reduce method of a given Reducer can be called?
A. As soon as at least one mapper has finished processing its input split.
B. As soon as a mapper has emitted at least one record.
C. Not until all mappers have finished processing all records.
D. It depends on the InputFormat used for the job.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which process describes the lifecycle of a Mapper?
A. The JobTracker calls the TaskTracker’s configure () method, then its map () method and finally
its close () method.
B. The TaskTracker spawns a new Mapper to process all records in a single input split.
C. The TaskTracker spawns a new Mapper to process each key-value pair.
D. The JobTracker spawns a new Mapper to process all records in a single file.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Can you use MapReduce to perform a relational join on two large tables sharing a key?
Assume
that the two tables are formatted as comma-separated files in HDFS.
A. Yes.
B. Yes, but only if one of the tables fits into memory
C. Yes, so long as both tables fit into memory.
D. No, MapReduce cannot perform relational operations.
E. No, but it can be done with either Pig or Hive.
Answer: A

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NO.9 MapReduce v2 (MRv2 /YARN) splits which major functions of the JobTracker into separate
daemons? Select two.
A. Heath states checks (heartbeats)
B. Resource management
C. Job scheduling/monitoring
D. Job coordination between the ResourceManager and NodeManager
E. Launching tasks
F. Managing file system metadata
G. MapReduce metric reporting
H. Managing tasks
Answer: B,D

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